UGC NET SOLVED EXAM PREP QUESTIONS PUB ADM
objective solved Public administration for UGC NET Exam
ample paper pub adm UGC NET Exam
solved question papers of UGC NET
1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
objective solved Public administration for UGC NET Exam
ample paper pub adm UGC NET Exam
solved question papers of UGC NET
1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work
4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)
6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs?
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)
7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)
UNIT-V
ACCOUNTABILITY AND CONTROL
8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)
ACCOUNTABILITY AND CONTROL
8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)
9. On which of the following factors does people’s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
UNIT-VI
ADMINISTRATIVE SYSTEMS
10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)
ADMINISTRATIVE SYSTEMS
10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated?
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)
13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports?
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following statements “regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct”?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)
18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
19. The “Collegial” type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)
UNIT-V
PERSONNEL ADMINISTRATION
20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)
PERSONNEL ADMINISTRATION
20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)
21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan?
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)
22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics?
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)
UNIT-VIII
FINANCIAL ADMINISTRATION
24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)
FINANCIAL ADMINISTRATION
24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
UNIT-IX
UNION GOVERNMENT AND ADMINISTRATION ININDIA:
BRITISH LEGACY
26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)
UNION GOVERNMENT AND ADMINISTRATION ININDIA:
BRITISH LEGACY
26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)
27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
28. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct?
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)
30. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)
33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of “India“?
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)
38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements:
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the correct?
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)
42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India:
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)
45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports?
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)
47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India?
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)
49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)
.................................................----------------------------------------------------..............................................
UGC NET Public administration
Ugc Net Public Administration Papers Solved
UGC NET STUDY MATERIAL ON PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Ugc Net Public Administration Papers Solved
UGC NET STUDY MATERIAL ON PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
1. To which of the following notions of the man in an organizational set-up does the concept of bounded rationality relate more closely?
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
1. Economic
2. Optimizing
3. Administrative
4. Satisficing
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
2. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
List-I List -II
(Advocate) (Model)
A. Herbert Simon 1. Mixed scanning model
B. Charles Lindblom 2. Economic rationality model
C. Amitai Etzioni 3. Bounded rationality model
4. Incremental model
Code:
A B C
(a) 3 2 4
(b) 3 2 1
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 3 4 1
Ans. (d)
3.According to Yehezkel Dror, which of the following characteristics of the optimal model of policy making help man in understanding the optimal model?
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
1. It contains both rational and extra-rational elements.
2. It has basic rationality and economic rationality.
3. It contains a built-in-feedback system.
4. it adopts the methodology of logical positivism.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
4. Which of the following are propounded by the Theory Y of Douglas McGregor?
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work
1. exercises self-direction in the service of objectives that he seeks to realize
2. has commitment to objectives as a function of rewards
3. inherently likes work
4. has a capacity for imagination, ingenuity and creativity.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
5. Which one of the following leadership styles was identified by the Michigan University Leadership Studies as the most effective leadership style?
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)
(a) Democratic style leadership
(b) Employee-centered leadership
(c) Participative group leadership
(d) Team leadership
Ans. (b)
6. Who among the following has observed that instead of hierarchy of needs, motivation should be understood in terms of series of needs?
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)
(a) Chester Barnard
(b) David Mc Clelland
(c) Abraham Maslow
(d) Warren Bennis
Ans. (b)
7. According to Frederick Herzberg, the determinants of Job dissatisfaction include
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)
1. Working condition
2. Supervision
3. Salary
4. Responsibility
5. Recognition
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 4 and 5 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 5only
Ans. (b)
8 According Henri Fayol, which of the following actions are required in supervisory control process?
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)
1. Standard actions
2. Corrective actions
3. Coercive actions
4. Evaluative actions.
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) l and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (d)
9. On which of the following factors does people’s participation depend for its success in influencing the governance process?
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
1. Ability of the people to participate
2. Willingness for the people to participate
3. Opportunity4o the people to participate
4. Mechanisms available for participation.
Code:
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
10. Which one of the following thinkers was first to talk about the concept of ‘Constructive Conflict’ in an organization?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Mary Parker Follett
(c) Peter Blau
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (b)
11. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
List-I List -II
(Commission/Committee) (Recommendation)
A. First Hoover Commission 1. Division of training and education
B. First Hoover Commission 2. Reorganization of US President’s office
C. Brown low Committee 3. Senior executive service
D. Fulton Committee 4. Office of general service Administration
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 2 1 3
(b) 4 1 2 3
(c) 2 1 3 4
(d) 3 4 1 2
Ans. (b)
12. By which one of the following Acts, are the political activities of civil servants in the USA regulated?
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)
(a) The Hatch Act of 1939
(b) The Civil Service Act of 1833
(c) The Ramspeck Act of 1940
(d) The Taft-Kartley Act of 1947
Ans. (a)
13. The office of the Ombudsman like institution in the form of Parliamentary Commissioner, for Administration in the United Kingdom was set up on the recommendations of which one of the following reports?
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)
(a) Sir John Whyatt Report
(b) Northcote-Trevelyan Report
(c) Fulton Report
(d) Aitchison Report
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following statements in respect of the French Civil Service is not correct?
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)
(a) ENA is concerned with the training of technical personnel
(b) Basic unit of organization of the civil service is called Corps.
(c) French Civil Service is elitist
(d) Civil servants are allowed to take leave and contest for political offices.
Ans. (a)
15. Which of the following local government units are prevalent in France?
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
1. Department
2. Arrondissement
3. Canton
4. Commune
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (c)
16. The Amakudari system in respect of the civil service in Japan is
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)
(a) a post-retirement assignment
(b) professional training
(c) foreign posting
(d) monetary compensation
Ans. (a)
17. Which of the following statements “regarding civil services in Japan is/are correct”?
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)
1. The NPA and MCA are its principal controlling and coordinating agencies.
2. The Japanese higher civil service is elitist.
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of above
Ans. (c)
18. In which among the following countries is Charter Mark programme being effectively used to evaluate the performance of government agencies through outside independent agencies?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Great Britain
(d) USA
Ans. (c)
19. The “Collegial” type of executive can be found in which one of the following countries?
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)
(a) Japan
(b) France
(c) Switzerland
(d) Great Britain
Ans. (c)
20. Which one of the following experiments was not included in the Hawthorne experiments?
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)
(a) Bank wiring observation room
(b) Relay assembly test room
(c) Cutting metals
(d) Greg illumination
Ans. (c)
21. Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of the four basic steps in the position classification plan?
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)
(a) Job analysis-Grouping of positions Standardization-Position allocation
(b) Standardization-Job analysis grouping of positions-Position allocation
(c) Grouping of positions -job analysis – Position allocation-Standardization
(d) Job analysis-Grouping of position-Position allocation-Standardization
Ans. (a)
22. According to W.F. Willoughby, which of the following are correct about the essentials of a sound promotion system?
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
1. Adoption of standard specifications setting forth the duties and qualifications required for all positions in a government service.
2. Classification of all positions into distinct classes, grades and services based on duty classification.
3. The inclusion within this classification of all administrative positions except those having a political character
Which of the above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
23. Which of the following scholars has/have not laid any marked emphasis on administrative ethics?
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)
(a) Paul Appleby
(b) Frederick Mosher
(c) Chanakya
(d) David Osborne and Ted Gaebler
Ans. (c)
24. Who among the following has focused on the politics of the budgetary process?
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)
(a) Robert Golembiewski
(b) Aaron Wildavsky
(c) Jesse Birkhead
(d) A. Premchand
Ans. (b)
25. Which of the following is/are advantage/advantages of zero-based budgeting?
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
1. It eliminates or minimizes the low priority programmes.
2. it improves the programme effectiveness.
3. it facilitates critical review of schemes in terms of their cost effectiveness and cost benefits.
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
26. Which one of the following is a Parliamentary Standing Committee?
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)
(a) Draft Committee on Five Year Plan
(b) Railway Convention Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Joint Committee on Fertilizer
Ans. (b)
27. The legacy of British rule in India includes which of the following?
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
1. Creation of the ICS (Indian Civil Services)
2. Secretarial System
3. Local Self-government
4. Law and Order Administration
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (a)
28. Consider the following statements:
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
The expenditure charged on the Consolidated Fund of India comprises of
1. pension payable to Judges of High Court.
2. debt charges for which the Government of India is liable.
3. salary, allowances and pension payable to- Comptroller and Auditor General of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (a)
29. Which of the following statements about separation of the Railway Budget from the General Budget of India are correct?
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains only provisions dealing with the
1. To introduce flexibility in railway finance management
2. To facilitate a business approach to the railway policy.
3. To secure stability of the general revenues by providing an assured annual contribution from railway revenues.
4. To enable the railways to keen their profits for their own development.
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
Code:
(a) 2, 3 and 4 only
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (c)
30. Consider the following statements:
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
A Bill is deemed to be a Money Bill if it contains provision only dealing with the
1. imposition, abolition, alteration or regulation of any tax
2. regulation of the borrowing of money by the government.
3. appropriation of money out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
4. custody of the Contingency Fund of India.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2 and 3 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4only
(c) 1 and 4 only
(d) All of above
Ans. (d)
31. Which one of the following statements is correct with regard to the powers of the Parliament of India in enacting the budget?
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)
(a) It can increase a tax, but not reduce it.
(b) It can increase a tax as well as reduce or abolish it.
(c) It can not increase a tax but can reduce or abolish it.
(d) It can neither increase a tax nor reduce it.
Ans. (c)
32. Which of the following statements are correct in respect of parliamentary debate on Appropriation Bill?
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)
1. No amendments can be moved on the amount of expenditure.
2. Speaker is empowered to withhold permission on matters of repetitive nature.
3. Rajya Sabha has power to amend or reject the Bill.
Code:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) All of above.
Ans. (a)
33. Which of the following is/are correct in respect of ‘Zero Hour’ discussion?
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
1. It is not directed against individual Minister.
2. It covers questions raised over matters of public importance.
Code:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 1, 3 and 4only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
34. Through which of the following is judicial control over administration in India exercised?
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
1. Adjudication
2. Judicial Review
3. Writs
4. Public Interest Litigation
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 4 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) All of above
(d) 2, 3 and 4 only
Ans. (d)
35. Which of the following statements is/are correct about the writ of Prohibition?
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. It is an order issued by a higher court commanding a lower court to cease from proceeding in some mailers not within its jurisdiction.
2. It can be claimed by an aggrieved party as a matter of right.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
36. Which of the following is/are not correct in respect of the Right to Information Act, 2005?
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
1. Information in-respect of allegation of violation of human rights can be obtained in 30 days.
2. There are restrictions for third party information.
3. Total penalty for not providing information shall not exceed Rs. 5,000.
4. Appeal against the decision of the Central/ State Public Information Officer can be made to officers of higher rank.
Code:
(a) 3 only
(b) 1 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 4 only
Ans. (c)
37. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment Acts has/have made the decisions of the Council of Ministers binding on the President of “India“?
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)
(a) 42 and 44th Amendment Act
(b) 43rd Amendment Act
(c) 40th Amendment Act
(d) 40th and 41st Amendment
Ans. (a)
38. Which of the following statements with regard to the Prime Minister’s Office (PMO) is/are correct?
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. The PMO was given the status of a department under the Government’s of India Allocation of Business Rules, 1961.
2. Jurisdiction of the PMO extends over all such subjects and activities as are not specially allotted to any individual department.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
39. Consider the following statements:
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
Indicative planning indicates the
1. broad directions of development.
2. long-term goals in strategic areas
3. exclusive areas of government planning
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 and 2only
(b) 1, 2 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (a)
40. Which of the following accounts is/are not maintained by the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)
1 The Accounts of a State
2. The Railway Accounts
3. The Union Government Accounts
4. Defense Accounts
Code:
(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 2 only
Ans. (b)
41. Which one of the correct?
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)
(a) There are two categories of Mini Ratna Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs) in India.
(b) The Mini Ratna PSEs can have wholly owned subsidiaries.
(c) The Mini Ratna PSEs cannot raise capital from the international market.
(d) The Mini Ratna PSEs can induction-official directors.
Ans. (a)
42. On which of the following does the Finance Commission make recommendations to the President of India?
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. The distribution between Union and States of next proceeds of taxes and allocation between the States of their respective shares of shares of such proceeds.
2. The principles which should govern the grant- in-aid of the revenues of the States out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
43. Consider the following statements with respect to the Election Commission of India:
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
1. The terms of office of the Election Commissioners is the same as the Chairman of the Union Public Service Commission.
2. In case of difference of opinion amongst the Chief Election Commissioner and/or other Election Commissioners, the matter is referred the President of India.
3. Independence of the Election Commission and its insulation from executive interference is ensured by a special provision under Article 324(5) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 and 3 only
Ans. (d)
44. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Comptroller and Auditor General of India (CAG)?
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)
(a) The CAG has been awarded a fully independent status
(b) The CAG can only be removed on the recommendation of the President
(c) The salary and emoluments of the CAG are charged from the Consolidated Fund of India.
(d) The tenure of CAG is fixed for six years.
Ans. (b)
45. Consider the following statements with respect to duties of the Prime Minister according to the Constitution of India:
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
1. To make rules for the more convenient transaction of business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business
2. If the President so requires, to Submit for consideration of the Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a minister but which has not been considered by the council.
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) None of these
Ans. (c)
46. Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the Committee/Commission Reports?
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)
(a) Macaulay-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Islington
(b) Aitchison-Macaulay-Fulton-Islington-Lee
(c) Macaulay-Aitchison-lslington-Lee-Fulton
(d) Islington-Aitchison-Lee-Fulton-Macaulay
Ans. (c)
47. Which one of the following statements is not correct with regard to the Cabinet Secretary of India?
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)
(a) The office of the Cabinet Secretary was created in the year 1950.
(b) ‘The Cabinet Secretary is the principal secretary to the Prime Minister
(c) The Cabinet Secretary provides secretarial assistance to all Cabinet Committees
(d) Tenure of the Cabinet Secretary is fixed for five years.
Ans. (d)
48. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code below:
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)
List-I List-II
A. Lord Wellesley 1. Created the post of Civil Judge
B. Warren Hastings 2. Created the office of Chief Secretary
C. William Bentinck 3. Created the office of District Collector
D. Lord Cornwallis 4. Created the post of Deputy Collector
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 4 3 1
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 2 3 4 1
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (c)
49. Consider the following statements The Prime Minister as the head of the Council of Ministers
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
1. has a free hand in the distribution of the Council of Ministers
2. can reshuffle the Ministers and ask any Minister to resign
3. is bound by the advice of the Ministers
4. advises the Ministers in day-to-day administration of Ministries.
Which of the given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
50. Assertion (A): Conventional Public Administration is based upon the dichotomy of politics and. administration.
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)
Reason (R): Public Administration in India and Britain is opposed to any political role of civil servants.
Ans. (b)
..........................................................----------------------------............................................................
Free Solved paper CIVIL SERVICES (PRELIMINARY) EXAM 2008 PUBLIC ADMINISTRATION
Yearwise Solved Papers Public Administration
PAPER Public Administration – UPSC Civil Services Examination
Yearwise Solved Papers Public Administration
PAPER Public Administration – UPSC Civil Services Examination
1.The New Public Management places maximum emphasis on which one of the following?
(a) Customer drive government
(b) Entrepreneurial government
(c) Rationality in decision making
(d) Down-sizing of bureaucracy
Ans. (b)
(a) Customer drive government
(b) Entrepreneurial government
(c) Rationality in decision making
(d) Down-sizing of bureaucracy
Ans. (b)
2. The reinvention of government paradigm does not include which of the following?
1. Risk taking ability
2. Ecological sensitivity
3. Customer orientation
4. Delegation of authority
5. Concern for the disadvantaged
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) l, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 4 and 5
Ans. (d)
1. Risk taking ability
2. Ecological sensitivity
3. Customer orientation
4. Delegation of authority
5. Concern for the disadvantaged
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 3, 4 and 5
(c) l, 4 and 5
(d) 2, 4 and 5
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the are the characteristics of New Public Management?
1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship.
2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation.
3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.
4. Separation of units with4h a public section enterprise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
1. Emphasis on marketization and entrepreneurship.
2. Separation between strategic policy making and implementation.
3. Accountability through a simple chain of command.
4. Separation of units with4h a public section enterprise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) 2, 3 and 4 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
4. Match list-I with list-I and select the correct answer using the given below the list:
List-I List -II
(a) Public Administration studies have to be 1. Weidner
comparative to claim the status of a science.
(b) Development administration is goal and 2. R. Dahl
action oriented.
(c) Bureaucratic structures are necessary but 3. Hahn-Been Lee
not sufficient.
(d) Development is both process and purpose. 4. V. Ostrom
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (c)
List-I List -II
(a) Public Administration studies have to be 1. Weidner
comparative to claim the status of a science.
(b) Development administration is goal and 2. R. Dahl
action oriented.
(c) Bureaucratic structures are necessary but 3. Hahn-Been Lee
not sufficient.
(d) Development is both process and purpose. 4. V. Ostrom
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 2 4 1
(b) 4 1 3 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 4 2 3 1
Ans. (c)
5. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Thought/Concept Scholar
1. Hierarchical pyramid would Y. Dror
not so much flatten as a
result of computers as spread
into a bell shape
2. A change in economic Vilfredo Pareto
organization that makes one
or more members of society
better off without making
anyone worse off.
3. Metapolicy Policy for making procedures John Pfiffner
Select the correct answer using the
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
Thought/Concept Scholar
1. Hierarchical pyramid would Y. Dror
not so much flatten as a
result of computers as spread
into a bell shape
2. A change in economic Vilfredo Pareto
organization that makes one
or more members of society
better off without making
anyone worse off.
3. Metapolicy Policy for making procedures John Pfiffner
Select the correct answer using the
(a) 2 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
6. Which one of the following is the correct statement? ‘Comparative Public Administration’ differs from traditional comparative study of administrative phenomena in that it involves—
(a) Ecological, structural-functional, empirical and nomothetic approaches.
(b) Non-ecological, prescriptive, ideographic approaches.
(c) Adoption of philosophical and legal-formal approaches.
(d) Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches.
Ans. (a)
(a) Ecological, structural-functional, empirical and nomothetic approaches.
(b) Non-ecological, prescriptive, ideographic approaches.
(c) Adoption of philosophical and legal-formal approaches.
(d) Adoption of philosophical and ethical moral approaches.
Ans. (a)
7. Consider the following statements— Woodrow Wilson laid the foundation for the study of Public Administration by his emphasis on—
1. A science of administration.
2. A more businesslike administration.
3. Efficiency, economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration.
4. The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) l, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
1. A science of administration.
2. A more businesslike administration.
3. Efficiency, economy and effectiveness as lasting values of administration.
4. The need to study human behaviour attitudes and actions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) l, 3 and 4
Ans. (c)
8. Consider the following statements— According to Robert Dahl, the scientific study of
Public Administration is not possible because—
1. It involves problems of normative values.
2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
Public Administration is not possible because—
1. It involves problems of normative values.
2. Administrative behaviour is not predictable.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
9. Consider the following statements— Public-private distinction in public administration is currently losing much of its original rigidity due to—
1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology
2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
1. Contemporary acceptance of neoliberal ideology
2. Trend towards outsourcing in recent times.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (c)
10. Consider the following statements— In the course of Waldo-Simon debate on the theme of ‘Science’ of administration, Waldo questioned Simon’s ‘facts-values’ division, as—
1. An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.
2. A way of purging administration of politics.
3. Making p mere logical division of politics and administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Directions : Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) A is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (a)
1. An attempt to retain efficiency as core value of administration.
2. A way of purging administration of politics.
3. Making p mere logical division of politics and administration.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Directions : Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) A is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (a)
11. Assertion (A) : The New Public Management is a mere extension of New Public
Administration.
Reason(R): The Second Minnow brook Conference followed the First Minnow brook Conference after twenty years.
Ans. (d)
Administration.
Reason(R): The Second Minnow brook Conference followed the First Minnow brook Conference after twenty years.
Ans. (d)
12. Who among the following further developed the Politics-Administration dichotomy—a fairly constant line of thought at the initial stases of the evolution of Public Administration?
(a) F.L. Fayol
(b) L. Gulick
(c)L. Urwick
(d) F. Goodrow
Ans. (d)
(a) F.L. Fayol
(b) L. Gulick
(c)L. Urwick
(d) F. Goodrow
Ans. (d)
13. The Second Minnow brook Conference (1988) discussed majorly about which one of the following?
(a) Nomological deductivism
(b) Professionalization of public administration
(c) Debureaucratisation of administration
(d) All inclusiveness of the term ‘Public’
Ans. (d)
(a) Nomological deductivism
(b) Professionalization of public administration
(c) Debureaucratisation of administration
(d) All inclusiveness of the term ‘Public’
Ans. (d)
14. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
1. The Profession of Government —B. Chapman
2 Development Administration — La Palombara
3, Bureaucracy and Political Development— P. Appleby
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (c)
1. The Profession of Government —B. Chapman
2 Development Administration — La Palombara
3, Bureaucracy and Political Development— P. Appleby
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only
Ans. (c)
15. Development is the process of increasing autonomy of social systems, made possible by rising level of diffraction.
Who among the following gave the above definition?
(a) Edward Weidner
(b) Ferrel Heady
(c) Fred W. Riggs
(d) Montgomery and W. Siffin
Ans. (c)
Who among the following gave the above definition?
(a) Edward Weidner
(b) Ferrel Heady
(c) Fred W. Riggs
(d) Montgomery and W. Siffin
Ans. (c)
16. The World Bank’s view did not espouse which one of the following?
(a) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries.
(b) A more meaningful role by public servants in development.
(c) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization
(d) Induction of sophisticated technology even. without an adequate infrastructure.
Ans. (d)
(a) An increased role of NGOs in governance of developing countries.
(b) A more meaningful role by public servants in development.
(c) Higher weightage to market forces of privatization
(d) Induction of sophisticated technology even. without an adequate infrastructure.
Ans. (d)
17. “We are no longer confronted with several
Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be
applied equally well to public and private affairs”.
These views are assigned to whom ?
(a)Frederick Taylor
(b) L. Urwick
(c)Henri Fayol
(d) Frank Goodnow
Ans. (c)
Administrative Sciences, but with one which can be
applied equally well to public and private affairs”.
These views are assigned to whom ?
(a)Frederick Taylor
(b) L. Urwick
(c)Henri Fayol
(d) Frank Goodnow
Ans. (c)
18. “Administration is a moral act and an administrator is a moral agent”. This statement is credited to whom among the
following?
(a) L.D. White
(b) F.A. Nigro
(c) O. Tead
(d) C. Merriam
Ans. (c)
following?
(a) L.D. White
(b) F.A. Nigro
(c) O. Tead
(d) C. Merriam
Ans. (c)
19. Consider the following statements— The essential difference between closed and open models of organization is differing perception about—
1. Human nature.
2. Organization environment.
3. Role and significance of organization in society.
4. Management’s role in organization.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 3 and 4
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) l, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
1. Human nature.
2. Organization environment.
3. Role and significance of organization in society.
4. Management’s role in organization.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 3 and 4
(b) 2,3 and 4
(c) l, 2 and 3
(d) l, 2 and 4
Ans. (b)
20. Consider the following statements in respect of a matrix organization—
1. Professional identification is not maintained.
2. Conflict in organization authority exists,
3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
1. Professional identification is not maintained.
2. Conflict in organization authority exists,
3. There is a possibility of disunity of command.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c)1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
21. Consider the following statements—
1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.
2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
1. Good objective standards enable managers to avoid time-consuming contacts with his subordinates.
2. Inadequate or unclear authority delegation requires wide span of management in an organization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
22. The ‘Line and Staff’ form of organization first originated in which one of the following?
(a) Educational Administration
(b) Municipal Administration
(c) Military Administration
(d) Public Administration
Ans. (c)
(a) Educational Administration
(b) Municipal Administration
(c) Military Administration
(d) Public Administration
Ans. (c)
23. Consider the following statements:
1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.
2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
1. Authority relationship does not play any role in distinguishing line and staff functionaries.
2. Decentralization in an organization prevents comparison of performance of different organizational units to be made correctly.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
24. Which one of the following is not an advantage of departmentation by product in an organization?
(a) Effective use of specialized facilities
(b) Effective use of specialized knowledge
(c) Unambiguous responsibility assignment
(d) Effective top-management control
Ans. (b)
(a) Effective use of specialized facilities
(b) Effective use of specialized knowledge
(c) Unambiguous responsibility assignment
(d) Effective top-management control
Ans. (b)
25. In every organization the need for coordination rests upon which of the following factors?
1. The need to avoid over-lapping and confusion in the organization.
2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.
3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
1. The need to avoid over-lapping and confusion in the organization.
2. The need to prevent lopsided concentration on one aspect of work to the exclusion of other aspects.
3. The need firstly to avoid conflict and secondly to resolve the conflicts whenever these may arise.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
26. Who among the following had tested Weber’s ideal type model empirically and found that the Weberian Model had internal contradictions?
(a) Gouldner
(b) Merton
(c) Barnard
(d) Simon
Ans. (a)
(a) Gouldner
(b) Merton
(c) Barnard
(d) Simon
Ans. (a)
27. Which one of the following is the correct statement? The experiments of Mayo and Roethlisberger were predicated initially on the Taylorian hypothesis that workers—
(a) Are essentially lazy
(b) Are motivated only by more pay
(c) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions
(d) Obey orders of immediate superiors
Ans. (c)
(a) Are essentially lazy
(b) Are motivated only by more pay
(c) Respond like machines to changes in working conditions
(d) Obey orders of immediate superiors
Ans. (c)
28. Weber’s charismatic authority has which of the following features?
1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.
2. Legitimacy is derived from charisma’.
3. Person giving orders has sacred and outstanding characteristics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
1. Positions are given to followers on the basis of their merit.
2. Legitimacy is derived from charisma’.
3. Person giving orders has sacred and outstanding characteristics.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
29. Match list-I with list-Il and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists—
List-I List-II
(Concept) (Contributor)
(a) Functional foremanship 1. L.Urwick
(b) Constructive conflict 2. F.Taylor
(c) Scalar principle 3. E. Mayo
(d) Grapevine 4.M. Weber
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 5
(b) 15 4 3
(c) 2 5 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 5
Ans. (c)
List-I List-II
(Concept) (Contributor)
(a) Functional foremanship 1. L.Urwick
(b) Constructive conflict 2. F.Taylor
(c) Scalar principle 3. E. Mayo
(d) Grapevine 4.M. Weber
Code:
A B C D
(a) 2 3 1 5
(b) 15 4 3
(c) 2 5 1 3
(d) 1 3 4 5
Ans. (c)
30. According to classical theorists, how is coordination as a continuous process of harmonious ordering of various parts of an administrative organization characterized?
1. It is the ultimate task of the head of the organization only.
2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.
3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
1. It is the ultimate task of the head of the organization only.
2. It can be effectively achieved through hierarchisation of authority.
3. It can be facilitated through staff agencies.
Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
31. Legitimacy of rule, according to Max Weber, is based on which of the following?
1. Tradition
2. Charisma
3. Electoral verdict
4. Professional competence
Directions : Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (a)
1. Tradition
2. Charisma
3. Electoral verdict
4. Professional competence
Directions : Each of the next five items consists of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
Codes:
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true
Ans. (a)
32. Assertion (A) : The systems approach is criticized on the ground that it lacks the
property of direct application to practical situations.
Reason (R) It is descriptive, probabilistic and multivariate.
Ans. (a)
property of direct application to practical situations.
Reason (R) It is descriptive, probabilistic and multivariate.
Ans. (a)
33. Match list-I with list-H and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I
(a) Frederick Taylor 1. Field Force Model
(b) Chester I. Barnard 2.Fusion Process Theory
(c) Chris Argyris and E.W. Bakke 3. Zone of indifference
(d) Kurt Lewin 4. Pig iron experiment
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (c)
List-I
(a) Frederick Taylor 1. Field Force Model
(b) Chester I. Barnard 2.Fusion Process Theory
(c) Chris Argyris and E.W. Bakke 3. Zone of indifference
(d) Kurt Lewin 4. Pig iron experiment
Code:
A B C D
(a) 4 1 2 3
(b) 2 3 4 1
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 2 1 4 3
Ans. (c)
34. Taylor’s scientific management covers which of the following?
1. Differential piecework plan
2. Separation of planning and execution
3. Time study
4. Assuming worker as machine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 3 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 4only
(c) l, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2.and 3 only
Ans. (c)
1. Differential piecework plan
2. Separation of planning and execution
3. Time study
4. Assuming worker as machine.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 3 and 4 only
(b) l, 2 and 4only
(c) l, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 2.and 3 only
Ans. (c)
35. Which one of the following is not a part of activities of an industrial undertaking as detailed by Fayol?
(a) Relating to production and adaptation.
(b Relating to buying selling
(c) Relating to liaison with the governments
(d) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital
36. Who defined bureaucracy as a ‘state mystifying institution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mao-Tse-Tung
(c) Karl Marx
(d) VI. Lenin
Ans. (c)
(a) Relating to production and adaptation.
(b Relating to buying selling
(c) Relating to liaison with the governments
(d) Relating to raising and utilizing the capital
36. Who defined bureaucracy as a ‘state mystifying institution?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Mao-Tse-Tung
(c) Karl Marx
(d) VI. Lenin
Ans. (c)
37. Consider the following statements— Informal organizations/groups within formal ones come into being because—
1. They are created by the top management in an organization.
2. They facilitate communication within different units! levels of an organization.
3. They build cohesiveness amongst the members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
1. They are created by the top management in an organization.
2. They facilitate communication within different units! levels of an organization.
3. They build cohesiveness amongst the members.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
38. Who among the following used the systems framework in his analysis of governmental organizations?
(a) Philip Selznick
(b) HA. Simon
(c) Dwight Waldo
(d) Peter Drucker
Ans. (a)
(a) Philip Selznick
(b) HA. Simon
(c) Dwight Waldo
(d) Peter Drucker
Ans. (a)
39. Consider the following statements—
According to Barnard, authority is accepted in an organization only when
1. The superior issues order for compliance by subordinates.
2. The superior penetrates the subordinate’s zone of indifference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both l and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
Ans. (b)
According to Barnard, authority is accepted in an organization only when
1. The superior issues order for compliance by subordinates.
2. The superior penetrates the subordinate’s zone of indifference.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both l and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor2
Ans. (b)
40. Out of the following who has criticized bureaucracy as “an organization that cannot correct its behaviour by learning from its errors”?
(a) M. Crozier
(b) Frank Gilbreth
(c) Reinhard Bendix
(d) M. L. Cooke
Ans. (a)
(a) M. Crozier
(b) Frank Gilbreth
(c) Reinhard Bendix
(d) M. L. Cooke
Ans. (a)
41. What was/were the perspective”) of Weber’s analysis of bureaucracy?
1. Economic perspective
2. Political perspective
3.’ Sociological perspective
4. Cultural perspective Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(b) l and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
1. Economic perspective
2. Political perspective
3.’ Sociological perspective
4. Cultural perspective Select the correct answer using the code given below—
(a) 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(b) l and 2
(d) 3 only
Ans. (d)
42. In the Managerial Grid approach to defining leadership styles by Robert Blake and Jane Mouton, which variable is used along with the concern for people?
(a) Concern for external environment
(b) Concern for flexibility
(c) Concern for production
(d) Concern for managing change
Ans. (c)
(a) Concern for external environment
(b) Concern for flexibility
(c) Concern for production
(d) Concern for managing change
Ans. (c)
43. Which of the following is not one of the four systems of leadership suggested by Rensis Likert ?
(a) Charismatic
(b) Exploitive-authoritative
(c) Consultative
(d) Participative-group
Ans. (a)
(a) Charismatic
(b) Exploitive-authoritative
(c) Consultative
(d) Participative-group
Ans. (a)
44. Who is/are the author(s) of the well-known book Paradoxes of Group Life on the subject of intra-group conflicts in an organization?
(a) A.F. Stoner and E. Freeman
(b) K. Smith and D. Berg
(e) S. Ghoshal
(d) C.K. Prahlad
Ans. (a)
(a) A.F. Stoner and E. Freeman
(b) K. Smith and D. Berg
(e) S. Ghoshal
(d) C.K. Prahlad
Ans. (a)
45. John Woodward is known for her contribution in which area?
(a) Task technology approach to organizational design
(b) Environmental approach to organizational design
(c) Communication systems in an organization
(d) Feedback control in an organization
Ans. (a)
(a) Task technology approach to organizational design
(b) Environmental approach to organizational design
(c) Communication systems in an organization
(d) Feedback control in an organization
Ans. (a)
46. Which one of the following streams of thought could not be labeled under ‘situational design theory’?
(a) Behavioral approach
(b) Neo-classical, approach
(c) Contingency approach
(d) Bureaucratic model
Ans. (d)
(a) Behavioral approach
(b) Neo-classical, approach
(c) Contingency approach
(d) Bureaucratic model
Ans. (d)
47. Who among the following termed communication as the foundation of cooperative group activity in an organization?
(a) H.A. Simon
(b) J.D. Millet
(c) Peter Drucker
(d) Chester I. Barnard
Ans. (d)
(a) H.A. Simon
(b) J.D. Millet
(c) Peter Drucker
(d) Chester I. Barnard
Ans. (d)
48. which of the following are the power bases of leadership in terms of formulation by French and Raven?
1.Coercive power
2.Technical power
3.Referent power
4.Police power
5.Legitimate power
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) l, 3 and 5
Ans. (d)
1.Coercive power
2.Technical power
3.Referent power
4.Police power
5.Legitimate power
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 2, 4 and 5
(d) l, 3 and 5
Ans. (d)
49. In ‘Management Grid Theory’ of Blake and Mouton when the ‘concern for people’ is the highest, what is the leadership pattern called?
(a) ‘Impoverished’
(b) People-centric’
(c)‘Team Manager’
(d) ‘Country Club’
Ans. (d)
(a) ‘Impoverished’
(b) People-centric’
(c)‘Team Manager’
(d) ‘Country Club’
Ans. (d)
50. Which of the following are the components of Maslow’s esteem needs?
1.Aggressiveness
2.Desire to attain fame
3.Independence
4.Social recognition
5.Self-confidence
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 ,3, and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and
(c) l, 3 and 5
(d) l, 2, 4 and 5
Ans. (b)
1.Aggressiveness
2.Desire to attain fame
3.Independence
4.Social recognition
5.Self-confidence
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 ,3, and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4 and
(c) l, 3 and 5
(d) l, 2, 4 and 5
Ans. (b)
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UPSC pub adm questions fully solved
UPSC EXAM : Mock Test : UPSC Exams Pub Ad
IAS Prelims Papers Free Download Previous Year Question paper Fully Solved
1. Who advocated the concept of ‘democratic administration’ as part of the public choice approach?
IAS Prelims Papers Free Download Previous Year Question paper Fully Solved
1. Who advocated the concept of ‘democratic administration’ as part of the public choice approach?
(a) V. Qstrom
(b) B. Goffman
(c) H.G. Rainey
(d) R. Hartman
Ans. (a)
2. Who among the following developed the Rational Choice Model Sf Bureaucracy?
(a) J. Olsen
(b) Norton B. Long
(c)William B. Long
d) V.O. Key
Ans. (b)
3. While comparing Akbar’s revenue administrative system to Ripon’s local governments system, how would you define this comparison?
(a) Cross-institutional and cross-cultural
(b) Cross-processual and cross institutional
(c) Cross-territorial and cross-temporal
(d) Cross-institutional and cross-temporal
Ans. (d)
4. A prismatic society is characterized by which of the following?
1. Poly-normativism
2. Nepotism
3. Homogeneity
4. Poly-functionalism
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1, 2 and 4 only
(b) l, 3 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
5. Which one of the following orientations was missing in Woodrow Wilson’s article “The Study of Administration”?
(a) Comparative administration
(b) Ecological approach
(c) Performance motivation
(d) Organization effectiveness
Ans. (b)
6. Who among the following is the author of Development Administration: Concepts Goals and Methods?
(a) F.W. Riggs
(b) George Cant
(c) Ferrel Heady
(d) B.W. Weidner
Ans. (b)
7. Who introduced the term ‘elects’?
(a) Max Weber
(b) Talcott Parsons
(c) Fred Riggs
(d) Robert Merton
Ans. (c)
8. Who among the following have contributed significantly to the studies conducted by the Comparative Administration Group (CAG)?
(a) Ferrel Heady
(b) Ralph Braibanti
(c) Dwight Waldo
(d) William Willoughby
Ans. (a)
9. Consider the following statements-
According to Fred Riggs in his study of comparative public administration
1. ideographic orientation concentrates on an approach of generalization
2. nomothetic orientation concentrates on unique case studies
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
10. Consider the following statements-
1. Underpinning of Max Weber’s legal rational authority impacted Riggs’s explanation of functionally diffused society
2. Max Weber’s traditional authority features impacted Rigg’s explanation of diffracted society
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
11. Consider the following statements
1. The closed model of organizations is based on the premise that what is good for the individual is also good for the society
2. The closed model of organizations distinguishes between citizens and bureaucrats
3. According to closed model theorists, virtually everyone in society is encased on some sort of organization
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 only
Ans. (d)
12. Which of the following are factors which promote delegation of authority in an organization?
1. Need for expertise
2. Need of timely decisions at operational points
3. Seniority rules and policies
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) 1 and3only
Ans. (a)
13. Which of the following are desirable features of effective control features of an effective control system in an organisation?
1. Emphasis on exception
2. Corrective action of correct deviation
3. Multiple criteria
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (a)
14. Which one of the following is the correct statement?
(a) When an organization is departmentalized, decision making is vertically altered
(b) When an organization is decentralized, a horizontal grouping of specialized activities is attained
(c) Departmentalization is usually not linked with functional authority
(d) Functional departmentalization often focuses on achieving coordination between staff and line agencies
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following contingency factors impact on the extent of delegation in an organisation?
1. The size of the organisation
2. The importance of duty or decision
3. Complexity of the task
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
16. Which of the following pairs concerning span of control is/are correctly matched?
1. The size of the organization
2. The important duty or decision
3. Complexity of the task
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
17. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of functional departmentation of an organisation?
(a) It is a logical and time-proven method
(b) It simplifies training of the personnel
(c) It does not facilitate efficiency in utilization of personnel
(d) It tends to de-emphasize overall enterprise objectives
Ans. (c)
18. Which one of the following statements in respect of departmentation by product of an organisation is not correct?
(a) It facilitates the use of specialized capital
(b) It leads to maximum use of skills of employees
(c) It leads to maximum use of specialized knowledge
(d) It does not carry the dangers of increased costs through duplication of central service and staff activities
Ans. (b)
19. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of decentralization in an organisation?
(a) It facilitates product diversification
(b) It does not aid in adaptation to fast-changing environment
(c) It facilitates setting up of profit centers
(d) It becomes more difficult to have a uniform policy
Ans. (b)
20. Consider the following statements-
1. In an open control system in organisation, managers actively intervene to make decisions
2. Establishing standard in not a constituent step of the control step of the control process of an organization
3. Most statistical control procedures have strong post action elements.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
21. Which of the following are the behavioral problems associated with a matrix form of organization?
1. Career disruption
2. Demarcation of authority
3. Role reassessment
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
22. Consider the following statements-
1. Difficulty in defining staff authority is independent of the personality of executive and the environment.
2. Actual authority for decision making differs in each department, but this is not dictated by functional specialization.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
23. Consider the following statements:
1. Functional authority is not restricted to managers of a particular type of department
2. More often, functional authority is exercised by service or staff department heads
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (a)
24. Whose work inspired the US Congress to establish child labour laws and develop regulations for protecting workers from harsh and unsafe conditions?
(a) Elton Mayo
(b) Lillian Gilbreth
(c)Henry Gantt
(d) Henri Fayol
Ans. (a)
25. Which one of the following was not supported by F.W. Taylor?
(a) Standardization of work
(b) Efficiency experts
(c) Doctrine of the economic man
(d) Functionalisation
Ans. (b)
26. The contribution of Mary Parker Follett includes
1. circular behaviour.
2. integrative unity.
3. strategic limiting factor.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
27. Which one of the following is not a similarity between
Max Weber and Fred Riggs?
(a) Both constructed ideal-type models
(b) Both used deductive approach
(c) Both focused on the problems of change
(d) Both studied administrative systems in their environmental context
Ans. (d)
The following items consist of two statements, One labeled the ‘Assertion A’ and the other labeled the Reason R. You are to examine these two statements carefully and decide whether the Assertion A and the Reason R are individually true and if so, whether the reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. Select your answers to these items using the codes given below and mark your answer sheet accordingly:
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
Codes:
(a) Both A and Rare true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Roth A and R are true but R is NOT a correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
28. Assertion (A): By World War II sharp criticism of Max Weber’s ideas of rational bureaucracy by social scientists began to surface.
Reason (R) : The social scientists argued that Max Weber had ignored the conflicts, sidestepping of rules and the chain of command that occurred in the organizations.
Ans. (d)
29. Who among the following developed the concept of zone of indifference in respect of acceptance of authority by a subordinate from his manager?
(a) Fred Fiedler
(b) Chester I. Barnard
(c) Frank Gilberth
(d) F. Herzberg
Ans. (b)
30. Which of the following were outlined by Max Weber as key characteristics of bureaucracy?
1. System of supervision and subordination
2. Unity of Command
3. Training in job requirement and skills
Select the correct answer using he code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 2 only
(d) l, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
31. According to Max Weber, the modem bureaucracy includes which of the following attributes?
1. Concentration of means of administration
2. A leveling effect on social and economic differences
3. Implementation of a system of authority that is practically indestructible
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (c)
32. Which one of the followings is not a part of Mary Parker Follet’s thought?
(a) Integration must follow the law of the situation
(b) Power is self-developing capacity
(c) Authority relates to the job
(d) Human behaviour is linear
Ans. (d)
33. Max Weber’s ideal-typical pure aucratic model focuses upon which of the following?
(a) Efficiency and rationality
(b) Rationality and responsiveness
(c) Responsiveness and reorganization
(d) Motivation and goal-achievement
Ans. (a)
34. Which of the following were the conclusions of the Hawthrone Studies?
1. ‘One best method’ of controlling the work environment.
2. Social pressure dominated behaviour.
3. Effect of intervention by researchers. Select the correct answer by using the code given below:
(a) 1 and 2 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (b)
35. Which of the following pairs are correctly matched?
1. Kurt Lewin— Group Behaviour
2. Human needs and motivation— Period following the World War-II
3. William Ouchi— Comparison between American and European Organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
36. In respect of the Organizational Configuration model given by Henry Mintzberg, which of the followings pairs are correctly matched?
1. Standardization of outputs— Diversified organization
2. Mutual adjustment— Innovative organization
3. Standardization of work processes—Shop-floor organization
Select the correct answer using the code given below
(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) l and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Ans. (d)
37. Consider the following statements—
1. Fred Fielder’s leadership theory is based on matching manager’s styles with situational variables
2. The path-goal theory is contingency-based but is also related to the underpinning concepts of expectancy theory
3. According to the VroomYetton theory of leadership, types of decisions which managers face do not influence changes in leadership approaches
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) l, 2 and 3
(b) l and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 and 3 only
Ans. (b)
38. Match List-I with List-I in respect of the managerial grid model of leadership and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List –I List-II
(Leadership) (Orientation)
(A) Authority-obedience management 1. 1,9
(B) Country club management 2. 5,5
(C) Organization man management 3. 9,9
(D) Team management 4. 9,1
Ans. (c)
39. Which of the following characteristics does not apply to structure-functional approach?
(a) Function is a consequence of a structure over another structure
(b) Structure is a pattern of behaviour that is a standard feature of a social system
(c) Function denotes mutual relationship between two or more structures
(d) Every structure can be physically seen and verified
Ans. (d)
40. Consider the following statements:
Behavioral approach is known for
1. scio-psychological stand
2. empirical work
3. prescriptive analysis
4. dogmatic position
Which of the statement given above a correct?
(a) 1and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4
Ans. (a)
41. Who among the following developed a measurement scale of public service motivation and a framework for a theory on public service motivation?
(a) Mary Parker Follett
(b) Elton Mayo
(c) J. Perry
(d) F. Herzberg
Ans. (d)
42. Which one of the followings is not a correct depiction of emotional intelligence?
(a) Ability to monitor one’s own and other’s emotions
(b) Discriminate between different emotions and label them appropriately
(c) Enhance the cognitive capacity of the individual
(d) Use emotional information to guide thinking and behaviour
Ans. (c)
43. Herbert Simon is not associated with which one of the following?
(a) Fact and value premises
(b) Satisficing
(c) Logical positivism
(d) Science of muddling through
Ans. (d)
44. Which one of the following is not correct in respect of Herbert Simon’s thought?
(a) An administrative decision can be evaluated only in terms of its factual element
(b) Activities derive their value from means-ends relationship
(c) Value and factual elements cannot be combined in a single decision
(d) No decision in an organization is the task of a single individual
Ans. (c)
45. The science of communication and control is known as
(a) PERT
(b) MIS
(c) Informatics
(d) Cybernetics
Ans. (d)
46. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(Administrative Thinker) (Administrative Approach)
(A) Charles Lindblom 1. Rational Approach
(A) Amitai Etzioni 2.Garbage Can Model
(C) Herbert Simon 3. Incremination
(D) Michael 4.Mixed Scanning
Code:
A B C D
(a) 3 4 1 2
(b) 1 2 3 4
(c) 3 2 1 4
(d) 1 4 3 2
Ans. (a)
47. Consider the following statements in respect of communication network in an organisation:
1. The wheel and all-channel networks are not preferred if speed of com is important
2. If accuracy is crucial, the chain, Y and wheel networks are preferred.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
48. Which one of the following is not a hypothesis that has evolved out of the path-goal theory of leadership?
(a) Directive leadership will lead to lesser employee satisfaction when there is substantive conflict within a work group
(b) Subordinates with an external locus of control will be more satisfied with a directive style
(c) Supportive leadership results in high employee performance and satisfaction when subordinates are performing structured tasks
(d) Directive leadership is likely to be perceived as redundant among subordinates with considerable experience
Ans. (a)
49. Consider the following statements:
In the least-preferred con (LPC) questionnaire development by Fred Fiedler,
1. if the respondent assigns high score to the least preferred co-worker, the respondent is termed as tasks oriented
2. if the respondent assigns low score to the least- preferred co-worker, the respondent is termed as relationship-oriented
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (d)
50. Consider the following statements:
1. According to Douglus McGregor Theory X, a hierarchical structure is with a narrow spun of control at each l in organization
2. Theory ‘is much likely to cause diseconomy of scale in a large organization
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
(a) l only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans. (b)
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