MCQ IN ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

1. Biotic environment includes

    (a) producers                             (b) consumers

    (c) decomposers                        (d) all the above

Answer: (d) all the above

2. Decomposers include

    (a) bacteria                                 (b) fungi

    (c) both                                       (d) animals

Answer: (c) both

3. Abiotic environment does not include

    (a) air                                          (b) water

    (c) soil                                          (d) plants

Answer: (d) plants

4. Vermicomposting is done by

    (a) fungus                                   (b) bacteria

    (c) worms                                    (d) animals

Answer: (c) worms

5. The group of organisms which convert light into food are called

    (a) autotrophs                             (b) heterotrophs

    (c) decomposers                         (d) omnivores

Answer: (a) Autotrophs

6. Which one the following is not biodegradable?

    (a) vegetables                             (b) fruits

    (c) earthworm                              (d) aluminium foil

Answer: (d) Aluminium Foil

7. Animal(s) which is/are active at night.

    (a) owl                                         (b) rat

    (c) cockroach                              (d) all the above

Answer: (d) All the above

8. An animal that can tolerate the heat of the desert is

    (a) rats                                        (b) camel

    (c) cow                                         (d) lion

Answer: (b) camel

9. Air pollution is caused by

   (a) Insecticides                    (b) Sewage

   (c) Smoke                            (d) Loud speakers

Answer: (c) smoke

10. If waste materials contaminate the source of drinking water which of the following diseases will spread?

   (a) Scurvy                            (b) Typhoid

   (c) Malaria                            (d) Anaemia

Answer: (b) Typhoid

Environmental Science Multiple Choice Questions

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11. In our country the Van Mahotsav Day is observed on

   (a) Second of October          (b) First of December

   (c) Tenth of August               (d) First of July

Answer: (d) First of July

12. Which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria to form compost?

   (a) Kitchen wastes                 (b) Plastic and polythene bags

   (c) dead plants                      (d) bodies of insects living in the soil

Answer: (b) Plastic and polythene bags

13. Which of the following problems is not created by noise pollution ?

   (a) Diarrhoea                         (b) Hypertension

   (c) Deafness                          (d) Irritation

Answer: (a) Diarrhoea 

14. Plants are green because of the presence of a pigment called:

    (a) glucose                                 (b) nitrogen

     (c) chlorophyll                            (d) oxygen

Answer: (a) chlorophyll

15. Air is composed of gases, water vapours and

    (a) dust particles                             (b) rainfall

    (c) snowfall                                       (d) light

Answer: (a) dust particles

16. Medicine of quinine is provided by

    (a) Eucalyptus plant                            (b) aconite plant

     (c) cinchona plant                               (d) money plant

Answer: (c) cinchona plant

17. Chief source of energy in environment is

    (a) fire                                                     (b) moon

    (c) sun                                                     (d) stars

Answer: (c) sun

18. When trees are cut, amount of oxygen

    (a) decreases                                            (b) increases

    (c) both (a) and (b)                                    (d) remains same

Answer: (a) decreases

19. Process through which plants reproduce:

    (a) Eating                                                        (b) Evaporation

    (c) Pollination                                                  (d) Condensation

Answer: (c) pollination

20. 71% of earth surface is covered with:

     (a) land                                                            (b) air

     (c) water                                                           (d) coal

Answer: (c) water

MCQ IN ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

1. Who is the founder of Lodhi dynasty?     a) Behlul Lodhi     b) Ibrahim Lodi     c) Sikander Lodi     d) None of the above

2. The State in India with the largest coastline is     a) Tamil Nadu     b) Kerala     c) Gujarat    d) Andhra Pradesh

3. What is rank of India in Human Development Index 2010 report?     a) 112     b) 119     c) 117     d) 132

4. Who was most responsible for the unification of Germany?     a) Hitler     b) Gary Baldy      c) Bismarck    d) Mussolini

5. Which of the following is largest river?     a) Ganga     b) Brahmputra    c) Yamuna     d) Godavari

6. Which is the oldest Veda book?     a) Sama-Veda    b) Yajur-Veda     c) Rig-Veda    d) Atharva-Veda

7. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner of India?     a) S.Y.Qureshi     b) Navin Chawla     c) S.H. Kapadia     d) P. J. Thomas

8. India has how much per cent area of world’s total geographical area?     a) 2.4%     b) 3.5%     c) 3.2%     d) 3.8%

9. Where was Gautama Buddha Born?     a) Porbandar     b) Sarnath     c) Lumbini    d) Bodh Gaya

10. What is the sex-ratio of India in Census 2011?      a) 920      b) 930      c) 935      d) 940

11. Konark temple is located in      a) Tamilnadu      c) Maharashtra      d) Orissa      d) Karanatka

12. The coast runs from south of Goa to Cape Comorin on India’s southern tip is      a) Malabar      b) Konkan      c) Coromandel       d) Sethu

13. Dantewada, which recently came into news due to Maoist attack is a district of      a) Assam      b) Chhatisgarh     c) Bihar      d) West Bengal

14.Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?      a) Kalpakkam  -  Tamil Nadu       b) Tarapur      -  Rajasthan     c) Narora         -  Uttar Pradesh      d) Kaiga          -  Karanatka       All the four names represents name of Nuclear power stations in India, Tarapur is located in Maharashtra.

15. According to 2011Census, density of population in India is     a) 382     b) 376     c) 358     d) 392

16. Which of the following persons was a members of India’s Constituent Assembly?      a) Khurshid Ahmad      b) Sachidanand Sinha      c) Ranbir Singh Hooda     d) Beni Prasad Verma

17. DDT is      a) synthetic bactericides      b) natural pesticieds      c) non biodegradable pollutants     d) Dichloro Diphenyl Titanium

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE about chemical reactions?      a) All chemical reactions are reversible      b) All chemical reactions releases heat during decomposition of molecules      c) Each chemical reaction is carried out by breaking bond between the molecules     d) All the above

19. Which of the following method is used to produce Oxygen in school laboratories?      a) By heating KClO3 with MnO2      b) By electrolysis of H2O      c) By photosynthesis      d) All the above

20. Detergent is mixture of      a) strong acid and strong base      b) weak acid and weak base      c) Strong base and weak acid      d) strong acid and weak base       Detergents are made from sodium hydroxide and fatty acids.Sodium Hydroxide is a strong base in        nature and fatty acids are weak acidic in nature.

21. Which of the following metals is used in amalgam?      a) Carbon      b) Sodium      c) Gold      d) Mercury

22. Sometimes the bottom of steel utensils turn black during cooking. Which of the following      conclusions can be drawn for the same?      a) steel utensils have high percentage of carbon      b) steel utensils have high percentage of iron      b) Insufficient combustion of fuel takes place      d) Non-Conventional source of energy is used

23. What will be the name of subtances used in the mixture in place of A and B in the following       activity carried by a science teacher in classroom?         a) iron, sand     b) sand, iron      c) wood, sand      d) lead, sand

24. If a bar magnet is broken into four pieces how many magnetic poles are there?      a) Two      b) Four      c) Six      d) Eight

25. If mass of the body is doubled, Kinetic energy will be      a) same      b) halved      c) doubled     d) four times       Kinetic energy is the one half the mass multiplied by the square of the velocity, K=1/2mv2. If mass is doubles, the        kinetic energy doubles.

26. The acceleration of a particle executing S.H.M. is      a) always constant      b) maximum at extreme position      c) maximum at the mean position      d) always zero

27. One-horned Rhinoceros are found in which of following states?      a) Gujarat      b) Assam      c) Karanatka      d) Madhya Pradesh

28. Why does an egg sink in pure water but float in salt water?      a) density of egg is less than density of pure water      b) density of egg is less than density of salt water      c) density of egg is more than density of salt water      d) None of the above

29. A solution having pH value 2 represents a      a) Weak Acid      b) Weak Base      c) Strong Base      d) Strong Acid

DBMS MCQ 000007

1.      Which is basically an RDBMS in which object oriented features are implemented:

a.       Java

b.      C++

c.       Oracle

d.      DBMS

2.      Which was the first commercial RDBMS:

a.       MS SQL

b.      DB2

c.       MY SQL

d.      ORACLE

3.      In which year RSI introduced oracle V2:

a.       1978

b.      1979

c.       1980

d.      1981

4.      Which version of oracle, released in 1983:

a.       V1

b.      V2

c.       V3

d.      V4

5.      Which version of oracle supported multi-version read consistency:

a.       V1

b.      V2

c.       V3

d.      V4

6.      In which year oracle v5 was released:

a.       1977

b.      1979

c.       1983

d.      1985

7.      Which version of oracle entered the market with more features:

a.       V2

b.      V3

c.       V5

d.      V6

8.      Which has enhancements in the input/output operation of disk, scalability, locking of row, backup and recovery:

a.      Oracle V6  

b.      Oracle V5

c.       Oracle V3

d.      Oracle V4

9.      Oracle 8 is an object relational database that was released in:

a.      1977

b.      1979

c.       1983

d.      1985

10.  V6 of oracle also included the first version for_____:

a.       PL

b.      SQL

c.       Both

d.      None

11.  Which was introduced stored procedures and triggers in PL/SQL:

a.       Oracle V6 

b.      Oracle V5

c.       Oracle V3

d.      Oracle V7

12.  Version 8i entered the market in______:

a.       1979

b.      1989

c.       1999

d.      None of these

13.  RAC stands for:

a.       Real application cluster

14.  Which version included RAC that enable multiple instances for accessing a database simultaneously:

a.       V2i

b.      V4i

c.       V6i

d.      V9i

15.   Oracle 9i was introduced in:

a.       1999

b.      2000

c.       2001

d.      2002

16.  ASM stands for:

a.      Automatic storage management

17.  Oracle database 11g was released in_________:

a.       2001

b.      2002

c.       2006

d.      2007

18.  The server process contains memory for a private session which is its own and is called_________:

a.       SGA

b.      PGA

c.       Both

d.      None

19.  Tables and indexes that are data of logical database structure that are stored physically in the form of______:

a.      Data files

b.      Control files

c.       Online redo log files

d.      All of these

20.  Which files has metadata that specifies database structure that includes database name along with database files names and locations:

a.       Data files

b.      Control files

c.       Online redo log files

d.      All of these

21.  Which is also known as redo records, recording whatever changes are made to data:

a.       Data files

b.      Control files

c.       Online redo log files

d.      All of these

22.  The data in oracle database is stored in blocks known as ________:

a.      Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

23.  Which contains many extents:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

24.  _____ shows a specified number of data blocks that are logically contiguous and keeps a particular type of information in its storage:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

25.  Which are logical storage units contained in a database and a logical container for some segment:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

26.  SOA stands for:

a.      Service- oriented architecture

27.  SOAP stands for:

a.      Simple object access protocol

28.  WSDL stands for:

a.      Web services description language

29.  ONS stands for:

a.      Oracle net services

30.  OLTP stands for:

a.      Online transaction processing

31.  OLAP stands for:

a.      Online analytical processing

32.  Which refers to a software that can be executed on two or more kinds of computer containing two or more kinds of operating system:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Portable

33.  Which refers to independent events of the main program flow of the systems that lacks concurrency:

a.       RDBMS

b.      Portable

c.       Asynchronously

d.      None of these

34.  Which is a method provided by an operating system, running in a sequence of steps:

a.       Storage

b.      Process

c.       Computing

d.      None of these

35.  How many interfaces provided by oracle:

a.       1

b.      2

c.       3

d.      4

36.  Which interface provided by oracle:

a.       SQL*PLUS

b.      SQL*PLUS command line interface

c.       SQLPlus Worksheet

d.      iSQL*PLUS

e.      All of these