CTET ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE PAPER-1 MCQs

1. We have days and nights because of:
(a) Earth’s rotation
(b) Earth’s revolution
(c) Sun’s rotation
(d) Sun’s revolution
2. The tail of flying birds acts as rudder. By this statement we can understand th the tail acts as:
(a) A part of the body which is beautiful
(b) A part which wards off flies and mosquitoes
(c) A part which guides the bird while flying
(d) A part which helps the bird take off
3. The combination of which of the following soils is best for plant growth
(a) Clay, sand & gravel
(b) Humus, clay & gravel
(c) Sand, humus & gravel
(d) Humus, sand & clay
4. Which of the following does not belong to the group formed by the other trees?
(a) Mango
(b) Coconut
(c) Tamarind
(d) Neem
5. In spring which of the following occurs?
(a) The days are longer & nights are shorter
(b) The nights are longer & days are shorter
(c) Days and nights are of almost equal duration
(d) None of the above
6. Which of the following plays an important role in the cause of rainfall
(a) Evaporation
(b) Condensation
(c) Both evaporation & condensation
(c) Filteration
7. A human body consists of ________ number of bones
(a) 205
(b) 206
(c) 207
(d) 208
8. Sanjay has a sugar cube in her mouth, in which part of his tongue, will the cube be sweetest?
(a) Front
(b) Middle
(c) Rear
(d) Sides
9. The mosquito repellent (coils, mats and liquids) th we generally use in our homes are:
(a) Pesticides
(b) Fertilizers
(c) Sedatives
(d) Insecticides
10. Cows have strong grinding teeth the back of the mouth, but they cannot e the flesh of the of other animals. This is because:
(a) They do not need to e the flesh
(b) They don’t have strong grinding teeth the front
(c) They don’t have long sharp pointed teeth
(d) They dislike eating flesh
11. During summer the earth is
(a) Closer to the sun
(b) Away from the sun
(c) Closer to the moon
(d) Away from the moon
12. Non-green plants like mushroom can’t make their own food because:
(a) They are too small
(b) They lack chlorophyll
(c) They lack photo-tropism
(d) They lack roots to suck water
13. Most of the reptiles like snakes, crocodiles, etc. e their food by:
(a) Tearing its flesh
(b) A process called cud chewing
(c) Swallowing it as a whole
(d) Sucking its blood
14. How much time does the earth take to complete one rotation?
(a) 24 hrs.
(b) 1 day
(c) 1 year
(d) Both A & B
15. How many muscles are there in a human body?
(a) 600
(b) 700
(c) 800
(d) 900
16. Which of the following is not a part of the excretory system?
(a) Eyes
(b) Kidneys
(c) Lungs
(d) Skin
17. During breathing which gas is most required by us?
(a) Hydrogen
(b) Oxygen
(c) Carondioxide
(d) Nitrogen
18. Which part of the body controls all the other organs?
(a) Heart
(b) Eyes
(c) Brain
(d) Stomach
19. Flamingos have ______ kind of feet
(a) Perching
(b) Wading
(c) Webbed
(d) None of these
20. The tomato plant falls under the category of:
(a) Herbs
(b) Shrubs
(c) Trees
(d) Grass
21. Which Indian scientist has got a Nobel Prize for his contribution in physics?
(a) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Albert Einstein
(d) Hargovind Khurana
22. When some sugar is dissolved in a glass of water, the water level:
(a) Increases
(b) Decreases
(c) Remains the same
(d) None of the above
23. The nature of relationship between condensation & evaporation is:
(a) They are the same
(b) They are opposite
(c) They are similar but not in all respects
(d) None of the above
24. We slip very easily on a wet floor because
(a) Water reduces the friction
(b) Water increases the friction
(c) We slip because we lose our balance
(d) None of the above
25. The process of solid changing into liquid upon the supply of he is called:
(a) Condensation
(b) Evaporation
(c) Melting
(d) Boiling
26. When we exhale, our lungs have to:
(a) Contract
(b) Expand
(c) Be still
(d) None of the above
27. Our head is made up of only one movable bone; it is called:
(a) Skull
(b) Cranium
(c) Jawbone
(d) Collarbone
28. The young ones of the frog are called:
(a) Young frogs
(b) Frog cubs
(c) Puppies
(d) Tadpoles
29. Paper is mainly made up of:
(a) Cellulose & starch
(b) Polythene & cotton
(c) Bamboo & grass
(d) Sunflower & Maize
30. Our sun is:
(a) Planet
(b) Satellite
(c) Comet
(d) Star
ANSWERS
1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (c)
6. (c) 7.(b) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (d) 15. (a)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (c) 19. (b) 20. (a)
21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (b) 24. (a) 25. (c)
26. (a) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)

Environmental science study materials:

Environmental science study materials:
1. Which of the following
statement about Fjord is incorrect?
A. Most Fjords were formed due to
raise in sea level after the melting
of Pleistocene ice
B. It is an emergent coast that was
originally submerged
C. It is a long narrow inlet of the
sea bound by steep slopes
D. It is a glaciated valley that has
been inundated by the sea

3. Residence time of water
molecule in the ocean is:
A. 3.5 years
B. 3.5 million years
C. 35 years
D. 35000 years

4. Hyperplasia means:
A. excessive motility of a muscle
B. Voracious eating
C. Abnormal increase in number of
cells
D. An increase in size of a cell

5. Carbon dioxide absorbs radiation
in the range:
A. 5.5 and 7 microns
B. Greater than 27 microns
C. 8 to 13 microns
D. 0.1 to 30 microns

6. Sodium is usually estimated by
which of the following analytical
technique:
A. Flame Photometry
B. Coulometry
C. High pressure liquid
chromotography
D. Visible spectrophotometry

7. Which combination of the
following elements constitutes a
major portion of earth crust:
A. Oxygen and Silicon
B. Oxygen and Iron
C. Silicon and Iron
D. Aluminium and Iron

8. Assertion (A):
Chlorofluorocarbons deplete ozone.
Reason (R): These compounds
contain Chlorine, Bromine and
Fluorine.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

10. Maximum Density of water is
at:
A. 4°C
B. 0°C
C. 100°C
D. 272°C

11. The cause of lung cancer
Mesothalemia is:
A. Asbestos
B. Arsenic
C. Mercury
D. Chromium

12. Which of the following pattern
of evolution accounts for all the
diversity present on earth today?
A .Microevolution
B. Megaevolution
C. Biodiversity
D. Speciation

13. Group of individuals of the
same species that share common
attributes are called:
A. Community
B. Population
C. Ecotype
D. Society

14. Which one of the following is
the correct food chain?
A. Algae -> Daphnia -> Dragon Fly
Nymph -» Newt -» Grass Snake
B. Daphnia -» Dragon Fly Nymph ->
Newt -» Algae -> Grass Snake
C. Grass Snake -> Newt -» Dragon
Fly Nymph Daphnia Algae
D. Newt -» Grass Snake -» Dragon
Fly Nymph -» Algae -> Daphnia

16 . Assertion (A): Monsoonal
rainfall is very high both on the
west coast and northeast India.
Reason (R): The duration of
monsoon over west coast and
northeast India is longer than
other parts of India.
A Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

19. Which one of the following
statements regarding El-NINO is
NOT true?
A. It is an extension of equatorial
current towards the western coast
of South America.
B. It is an occasional warm current
leading to an increase of about
10°C in subsurface water
temperature.
C. It develops as temporary
replacement of usual cold Peruvian
Current.
D. It causes an increase in plankton
thriving in cold Peruvian current.

20. The process of alluviation
indicates:
A .Removal of particles from the
upper layer of soil
B. Removal of particles from lower
layer of soil
C. Deposition of soil particles in
sub-soil layer
D. Transportation of soil particles
in the B-horizon

21. Which one of the following is
the cleanest source of energy?
A. Hydropower
B. Fossil fuel
C. Nuclear power
D. Wind energy

22. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List I List - II
(a) CFC (i) Bhopal Gas Tragedy
(b) C0 2 (ii) Global Warming
(c) BOD (iii) Ozone depletion
(d) MIC (iv) Water pollution Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (iv) (i)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
D. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i)

23. The global warming efficiency
of a CFC molecule in relation to a
CO-, molecule is higher by a factor
of:
A. 125
B. 25
C. 20,000
D. 1500

24. Arsenic problem in India is
primarily due to:
A. Overexploitation of arsenopyrite
in the hinterland
B. Overexploitation of coal in Bihar
and Bengal
C. Overexploitation of ground
water in the affected areas
D. Overexploitation of surface
water in the affected areas

25. Acid rain is caused by:
A. CO and CO2 ,
B. SO 2 ,and 0 2
C. S0 2 and NO" 2
D. NO 2 and O 2

26. What will be the outcome of
Eutrophication of surface waters?
A. Overproduction of biomass
B. Decrease in nitrogen
concentration
C. Decrease in phosphorus
concentration
D. Decrease in both nitrogen and
phosphorus concentrations.

27. Assertion (A): Negatively
charged soil particles attract
positive ions like Ca++ and Mg ++
Reason (R): The attraction keeps the
ions at soil level for ready
availability.
A. Both (A) and (R) are true and (R)
is the correct explanation of (A)
B. Both (A) and (R) are true but (R)
is not the correct explanation of
(A)
C. (A) is true but (R) is false
D. (A) is false but (R) is true

29. Cost Benefit analysis is
required in case of proposals
involving clearance of forest land:
A. Greater than 1Oha but less than
20ha
B. Greater than 20ha
C. Greater than 5ha but less than
1Oha
D. Greater than 40ha only

30. Ecologically sensitive and
important areas, breeding and
spawning grounds of marine life
etc., are categorized in coastal
Regulation Zone as:
A. CRZ - IV
B. CRZ - II
C. CRZ - III
D. CRZ - I

31. A management tool comprising
a systematic, periodic and objective
evaluation of how well an
environmental organization,
management and equipment are
performing is known as:
A. Raw material balance
B. Input - output analysis
C. Acturities at site
D. Environmental audit

33. Match the items in List - I with
List - II and select the correct
answer using codes given below:
List - I List - II
• (a) Montreal Conven- (i) Ozone
depletion tion
(b) Rio - Summit (ii) Greenhouse
gas
(c) Ramsah Conven- (iii) Convention
on tion Biological diversity
(d) Kyoto Protocol (iv) Wetlands
convention
Code:
(a) (b) (c) (d)
A. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
B. (iv) (iii) (i) (ii)
C. (i) (iii) (iv) (ii)
D. (i) (ii) (iv) (iii)

34. The least preferred technique
in the disposal of municipal solid
waste is:
A. incineration
B. composting
C. land filling
D. bricketting

35. Bacterial decomposition of
biological material under aerobic
condition is:
A. Fermentation
B. Fertilization
C. Contamination
D. Composting

36. When you go for shopping,
what are you expected to do to
save environment?
A. Shop for products that have as
little packaging as possible.
B. In any store, use a bag even it is
not needed.
C. Do not reduce the frequency of
shopping.
D. Buy paper towels and napkins.

38. In the analysis of 15 water
samples, Ca and Mg gave a
correlation of +0.95. It means:
A. Ca came from soil and Mg came
from biota
B. Ca and Mg both came from the
same type of water
C. Ca and Mg are both cogenetic
D. Ca and Mg came from different
sources.

39. If a piece of metal weighs
10.2g in air, 8.6g in water and
7.8g in another liquid, then what
will be the specific gravity of the
liquid?
A. 1.0
B. 1.5
C. 2.0
D. 3.0

40. The geometric mean of the
numbers 2, 4, 8, 16, 32 is:
A. 12
B. 16
C. 8
D. 32

41. The correlation coefficient
between the variables X, Y as given
in the following table:
X 1 3 4 6 8 9 11 14
Y 1 2 4 4 5 7 8 9 is:
A. -0.977
B. -0.517
C. +0.977
D. +0.217

42. Climatic stress is caused by
insufficient and/or excessive
regime of:
A. Temperature
B. Humidity
C. Solar radiation
D. All the above

43. The chemical that is used to
ripen mangoes is:
A .Calcium sulphide
B. Calcium carbide
C. Calcium carbonate
D. Calcium chloride
44. Which two of the following
statements regarding ISO 14000
series of standards are true?
Answer choosing the code given
below:
(i) ISO 14000 standards are based
on a principle assumption that
better environmental management
will lead to better environmental
performance.
(ii) ISO M°C/u standards are
regulatory standards developed by
ISO
(iii) ISO 14000 standards are
market driven and therefore are
based on voluntary involvement of
all interests in the market place.
(iv) The adoption of ISO 14000 is a
one time commitment
A (i) and (ii)
B. (ii) and (iii)
C. (i) and (iii)
D. (iii) and (iv)

45. Organisms that generate energy
using light are:
A. oligotrophs
B. chaemorganotrophs
C. chaemolithotrophs
D. photoautotrophs

47. Land use pattern is usually
studied by the following technique:
A. Aerial photography
B. Satellite imaging
C. Satellite imaging and G. I. S.
D. Satellite imaging, G. I. S. and G.
P. S.

48. To conserve coral reefs the
Govt, of India declared one of the
following as Marine Park:
A. Gulf of Kutch
B. Lakshadweep islands
C. Gulf of Mannar
D. Andaman Islands

49. Which one of the following
does not contribute to
conservation of water?
A Waste water treatment
B. Waste land development
C. Water shed protection
D. Rain water harvesting

50. Particle size in soil can be
classified as clay: 1-4 micron. Silt:
4-62 micron. Sand: 62-1000
micron; Boulder: >1000 micron. It
is hence correct to suggest that in
nature particle size distribution
follows:
A. Binomial distribution
B. Lognormal distribution
C. Linear distribution
D. Normal distribution
Answers

1   2   3  4    5   6   7    8   10

D  C  C  A   A   A   C   A
 11 12 13 14 16 19 20
B    C    C   A  B   A  C

21 22 23 24 25 26 27 29 30
D    A   A   C   C   A   A   A   D
31 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
D    C   D   A   A   D   C  C
41 42 43 44 45 47 48 49 50
C    D    B  A   D   B   B   B  D

Answers
1   3  4   5   6   7   8   10
D  C  C  A   A   A   C   A
11 12 13 14 16 19 20
B    C    C   A  B   A  C
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 29 30
D    A   A   C   C   A   A   A   D
31 33 34 35 36 38 39 40
D    C   D   A   A   D   C  C
41 42 43 44 45 47 48 49 50
C    D    B  A   D   B   B   B  D

MCQ IN ENVIRONMENTAL STUDIES

1. Biotic environment includes

    (a) producers                             (b) consumers

    (c) decomposers                        (d) all the above

Answer: (d) all the above

2. Decomposers include

    (a) bacteria                                 (b) fungi

    (c) both                                       (d) animals

Answer: (c) both

3. Abiotic environment does not include

    (a) air                                          (b) water

    (c) soil                                          (d) plants

Answer: (d) plants

4. Vermicomposting is done by

    (a) fungus                                   (b) bacteria

    (c) worms                                    (d) animals

Answer: (c) worms

5. The group of organisms which convert light into food are called

    (a) autotrophs                             (b) heterotrophs

    (c) decomposers                         (d) omnivores

Answer: (a) Autotrophs

6. Which one the following is not biodegradable?

    (a) vegetables                             (b) fruits

    (c) earthworm                              (d) aluminium foil

Answer: (d) Aluminium Foil

7. Animal(s) which is/are active at night.

    (a) owl                                         (b) rat

    (c) cockroach                              (d) all the above

Answer: (d) All the above

8. An animal that can tolerate the heat of the desert is

    (a) rats                                        (b) camel

    (c) cow                                         (d) lion

Answer: (b) camel

9. Air pollution is caused by

   (a) Insecticides                    (b) Sewage

   (c) Smoke                            (d) Loud speakers

Answer: (c) smoke

10. If waste materials contaminate the source of drinking water which of the following diseases will spread?

   (a) Scurvy                            (b) Typhoid

   (c) Malaria                            (d) Anaemia

Answer: (b) Typhoid

Environmental Science Multiple Choice Questions

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11. In our country the Van Mahotsav Day is observed on

   (a) Second of October          (b) First of December

   (c) Tenth of August               (d) First of July

Answer: (d) First of July

12. Which of the following wastes cannot be decomposed by bacteria to form compost?

   (a) Kitchen wastes                 (b) Plastic and polythene bags

   (c) dead plants                      (d) bodies of insects living in the soil

Answer: (b) Plastic and polythene bags

13. Which of the following problems is not created by noise pollution ?

   (a) Diarrhoea                         (b) Hypertension

   (c) Deafness                          (d) Irritation

Answer: (a) Diarrhoea 

14. Plants are green because of the presence of a pigment called:

    (a) glucose                                 (b) nitrogen

     (c) chlorophyll                            (d) oxygen

Answer: (a) chlorophyll

15. Air is composed of gases, water vapours and

    (a) dust particles                             (b) rainfall

    (c) snowfall                                       (d) light

Answer: (a) dust particles

16. Medicine of quinine is provided by

    (a) Eucalyptus plant                            (b) aconite plant

     (c) cinchona plant                               (d) money plant

Answer: (c) cinchona plant

17. Chief source of energy in environment is

    (a) fire                                                     (b) moon

    (c) sun                                                     (d) stars

Answer: (c) sun

18. When trees are cut, amount of oxygen

    (a) decreases                                            (b) increases

    (c) both (a) and (b)                                    (d) remains same

Answer: (a) decreases

19. Process through which plants reproduce:

    (a) Eating                                                        (b) Evaporation

    (c) Pollination                                                  (d) Condensation

Answer: (c) pollination

20. 71% of earth surface is covered with:

     (a) land                                                            (b) air

     (c) water                                                           (d) coal

Answer: (c) water

MCQ IN ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE

1. Who is the founder of Lodhi dynasty?     a) Behlul Lodhi     b) Ibrahim Lodi     c) Sikander Lodi     d) None of the above

2. The State in India with the largest coastline is     a) Tamil Nadu     b) Kerala     c) Gujarat    d) Andhra Pradesh

3. What is rank of India in Human Development Index 2010 report?     a) 112     b) 119     c) 117     d) 132

4. Who was most responsible for the unification of Germany?     a) Hitler     b) Gary Baldy      c) Bismarck    d) Mussolini

5. Which of the following is largest river?     a) Ganga     b) Brahmputra    c) Yamuna     d) Godavari

6. Which is the oldest Veda book?     a) Sama-Veda    b) Yajur-Veda     c) Rig-Veda    d) Atharva-Veda

7. Who is the Chief Election Commissioner of India?     a) S.Y.Qureshi     b) Navin Chawla     c) S.H. Kapadia     d) P. J. Thomas

8. India has how much per cent area of world’s total geographical area?     a) 2.4%     b) 3.5%     c) 3.2%     d) 3.8%

9. Where was Gautama Buddha Born?     a) Porbandar     b) Sarnath     c) Lumbini    d) Bodh Gaya

10. What is the sex-ratio of India in Census 2011?      a) 920      b) 930      c) 935      d) 940

11. Konark temple is located in      a) Tamilnadu      c) Maharashtra      d) Orissa      d) Karanatka

12. The coast runs from south of Goa to Cape Comorin on India’s southern tip is      a) Malabar      b) Konkan      c) Coromandel       d) Sethu

13. Dantewada, which recently came into news due to Maoist attack is a district of      a) Assam      b) Chhatisgarh     c) Bihar      d) West Bengal

14.Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?      a) Kalpakkam  -  Tamil Nadu       b) Tarapur      -  Rajasthan     c) Narora         -  Uttar Pradesh      d) Kaiga          -  Karanatka       All the four names represents name of Nuclear power stations in India, Tarapur is located in Maharashtra.

15. According to 2011Census, density of population in India is     a) 382     b) 376     c) 358     d) 392

16. Which of the following persons was a members of India’s Constituent Assembly?      a) Khurshid Ahmad      b) Sachidanand Sinha      c) Ranbir Singh Hooda     d) Beni Prasad Verma

17. DDT is      a) synthetic bactericides      b) natural pesticieds      c) non biodegradable pollutants     d) Dichloro Diphenyl Titanium

18. Which of the following statements is TRUE about chemical reactions?      a) All chemical reactions are reversible      b) All chemical reactions releases heat during decomposition of molecules      c) Each chemical reaction is carried out by breaking bond between the molecules     d) All the above

19. Which of the following method is used to produce Oxygen in school laboratories?      a) By heating KClO3 with MnO2      b) By electrolysis of H2O      c) By photosynthesis      d) All the above

20. Detergent is mixture of      a) strong acid and strong base      b) weak acid and weak base      c) Strong base and weak acid      d) strong acid and weak base       Detergents are made from sodium hydroxide and fatty acids.Sodium Hydroxide is a strong base in        nature and fatty acids are weak acidic in nature.

21. Which of the following metals is used in amalgam?      a) Carbon      b) Sodium      c) Gold      d) Mercury

22. Sometimes the bottom of steel utensils turn black during cooking. Which of the following      conclusions can be drawn for the same?      a) steel utensils have high percentage of carbon      b) steel utensils have high percentage of iron      b) Insufficient combustion of fuel takes place      d) Non-Conventional source of energy is used

23. What will be the name of subtances used in the mixture in place of A and B in the following       activity carried by a science teacher in classroom?         a) iron, sand     b) sand, iron      c) wood, sand      d) lead, sand

24. If a bar magnet is broken into four pieces how many magnetic poles are there?      a) Two      b) Four      c) Six      d) Eight

25. If mass of the body is doubled, Kinetic energy will be      a) same      b) halved      c) doubled     d) four times       Kinetic energy is the one half the mass multiplied by the square of the velocity, K=1/2mv2. If mass is doubles, the        kinetic energy doubles.

26. The acceleration of a particle executing S.H.M. is      a) always constant      b) maximum at extreme position      c) maximum at the mean position      d) always zero

27. One-horned Rhinoceros are found in which of following states?      a) Gujarat      b) Assam      c) Karanatka      d) Madhya Pradesh

28. Why does an egg sink in pure water but float in salt water?      a) density of egg is less than density of pure water      b) density of egg is less than density of salt water      c) density of egg is more than density of salt water      d) None of the above

29. A solution having pH value 2 represents a      a) Weak Acid      b) Weak Base      c) Strong Base      d) Strong Acid

DBMS MCQ 000007

1.      Which is basically an RDBMS in which object oriented features are implemented:

a.       Java

b.      C++

c.       Oracle

d.      DBMS

2.      Which was the first commercial RDBMS:

a.       MS SQL

b.      DB2

c.       MY SQL

d.      ORACLE

3.      In which year RSI introduced oracle V2:

a.       1978

b.      1979

c.       1980

d.      1981

4.      Which version of oracle, released in 1983:

a.       V1

b.      V2

c.       V3

d.      V4

5.      Which version of oracle supported multi-version read consistency:

a.       V1

b.      V2

c.       V3

d.      V4

6.      In which year oracle v5 was released:

a.       1977

b.      1979

c.       1983

d.      1985

7.      Which version of oracle entered the market with more features:

a.       V2

b.      V3

c.       V5

d.      V6

8.      Which has enhancements in the input/output operation of disk, scalability, locking of row, backup and recovery:

a.      Oracle V6  

b.      Oracle V5

c.       Oracle V3

d.      Oracle V4

9.      Oracle 8 is an object relational database that was released in:

a.      1977

b.      1979

c.       1983

d.      1985

10.  V6 of oracle also included the first version for_____:

a.       PL

b.      SQL

c.       Both

d.      None

11.  Which was introduced stored procedures and triggers in PL/SQL:

a.       Oracle V6 

b.      Oracle V5

c.       Oracle V3

d.      Oracle V7

12.  Version 8i entered the market in______:

a.       1979

b.      1989

c.       1999

d.      None of these

13.  RAC stands for:

a.       Real application cluster

14.  Which version included RAC that enable multiple instances for accessing a database simultaneously:

a.       V2i

b.      V4i

c.       V6i

d.      V9i

15.   Oracle 9i was introduced in:

a.       1999

b.      2000

c.       2001

d.      2002

16.  ASM stands for:

a.      Automatic storage management

17.  Oracle database 11g was released in_________:

a.       2001

b.      2002

c.       2006

d.      2007

18.  The server process contains memory for a private session which is its own and is called_________:

a.       SGA

b.      PGA

c.       Both

d.      None

19.  Tables and indexes that are data of logical database structure that are stored physically in the form of______:

a.      Data files

b.      Control files

c.       Online redo log files

d.      All of these

20.  Which files has metadata that specifies database structure that includes database name along with database files names and locations:

a.       Data files

b.      Control files

c.       Online redo log files

d.      All of these

21.  Which is also known as redo records, recording whatever changes are made to data:

a.       Data files

b.      Control files

c.       Online redo log files

d.      All of these

22.  The data in oracle database is stored in blocks known as ________:

a.      Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

23.  Which contains many extents:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

24.  _____ shows a specified number of data blocks that are logically contiguous and keeps a particular type of information in its storage:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

25.  Which are logical storage units contained in a database and a logical container for some segment:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Tablespaces

26.  SOA stands for:

a.      Service- oriented architecture

27.  SOAP stands for:

a.      Simple object access protocol

28.  WSDL stands for:

a.      Web services description language

29.  ONS stands for:

a.      Oracle net services

30.  OLTP stands for:

a.      Online transaction processing

31.  OLAP stands for:

a.      Online analytical processing

32.  Which refers to a software that can be executed on two or more kinds of computer containing two or more kinds of operating system:

a.       Data blocks

b.      Extents

c.       Segments

d.      Portable

33.  Which refers to independent events of the main program flow of the systems that lacks concurrency:

a.       RDBMS

b.      Portable

c.       Asynchronously

d.      None of these

34.  Which is a method provided by an operating system, running in a sequence of steps:

a.       Storage

b.      Process

c.       Computing

d.      None of these

35.  How many interfaces provided by oracle:

a.       1

b.      2

c.       3

d.      4

36.  Which interface provided by oracle:

a.       SQL*PLUS

b.      SQL*PLUS command line interface

c.       SQLPlus Worksheet

d.      iSQL*PLUS

e.      All of these