General Knowledge IAS, IES Paper
GK Model Test Paper
1. Petrochemicals have started substituting traditional raw materials like
(a) Wood
(b) Glass
(c) Metal
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
2. Cement is exported to
(a) South and South East Asia
(b) Middle East Africa
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
3. The cement factory of Jharkhand is at Dalmianagar. Name the state where Durg cement factory is set up?
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) Chattisgarh
Ans. (d)
4. India is the second largest producer of
(a) Two wheelers
(b) Three wheelers
(c) Commercial vehicles
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
5. Industries from several branches of agriculture are
(a) Plantation industry
(b) Dairying industry
(c) High yielding seed industry
(d) A1l the above
Ans. (d)
6. Hippocrates was known as father of medicine because he laid down t1 principles of
(a) Foundation of modern science
(b) Identified diseases
(c) Contributed a great deal towards medicine
(d) Scientific developments
Ans. (c)
7. The Roman civilization developed around
(a) 3rd century BC
(b) 5th century BC
(c) 6th century BC
(d) 8th century BC
Ans. (b)
8. Pantheon was the best example of Roman
(a) Art
(b) Architecture
(c) Culture
(d) Engineering skill
Ans. (c)
9. the most important slave revolt was led by
(a) Spartacus
(b) Pompey
(c) Caesar
(d) None of these
Ans. (a)
10. The period of Roman history was very peaceful known as
(a) Prueps
(b) Pax Roman
(c) Caliphate
(d) Roman era
Ans. (b)
11. Constantine was the first Roman ruler to allow the introduction of
(a) Christianity
(b) Islam
(c) Hinduism
(d) Sikhism
Ans. (a)
12. Jerusalem is the holy place of
(a) Muslims
(b) Christians
(c) Muslims, Christians & Jews
(d) Arabs
Ans. (b)
13. The first in the world to provide free medicine to the patients were the
(a) Greeks
(b) Chinese
(c) Romans
(d) Indians
Ans. (a)
14. One of the greatest contributions of the Romans were the 3 laws
(a) Civil law, peoples laws, natural law
(b) Legal laws
(c) Economic laws
(d) Religious laws
Ans. (b)
15. Judaism is the religion of the
(a) Jews
(b) Muslims
(c) Christians
(d) Hindus
Ans. (a)
16. The language used by the Jews is known as
(a) Hebrew
(b) Latin
(c) Greek
(d) Cuneiform
Ans. (a)
17. Asia and Africa were the best
(a) Markets for cheap goods
(b) Areas for exploitation
(c) Rich in raw material
(d) Rich in slaves
Ans. (a)
18. The Open Door Policy was proposed by
(a) Britain
(b) USA
(c) France
(d) Holland
Ans. (a)
19. The Anglo-Japanese Treaty was signed in
(a) 1900
(b) 1901
(c) 1902
(d) 1904
Ans. (c)
20. Slave trade was started by the
(a) Portuguese
(b) British
(c) French
(d) American
Ans. (a)
21. USA introduced a new doctrine to capture colonies in South America
(a) Monroe Doctrine
(b) Big stick policy
(c) Civilizing doctrine
(d) Conversion policy
Ans. (a)
22. Which of the following is an example of kharif crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Gram
(d) Mustard
Ans. (a)
23. A fan produces a feeling of comfort during hot weather because
(a) Fan supplies cold air
(b) Our perspiration evaporates rapidly
(c) Our body radiates more heat in air
(d) Conductivity of air increases
Ans. (b)
24. The water can be made to boil even at 0°C if the pressure of surrounding is
(a) 76cm of Hg
(b) 5cm of Hg
(c) 0.1 cm of Hg
(d) 4.6 mm of Hg
Ans. (d)
25. Nagaland was made a state in
(a) 1962
(b) 1963
(c) 1969
(d) 1960
Ans. (b)
GK Bank, Teachers, Railways Exams General Awareness
GK Bank, Teachers, Railways Exams General Awareness
General Knowledge Free Online Paper
1. The places Mahe, Karaikal and Yanam comprise which union territory?
(a) Chandigarh
(b) Pondicherry
(c) Diu and Daman
(d) Dadra Nagar Haveli
Ans. (b)
2. Which one of the following is not the new concept in our judicial system?
(a) Family courts
(b) Mobile courts
(c) Legal aids
(d) Company courts
Ans. (d)
3. Which of the following states do not have bicameral legislatures?
(a) Bihar
(b) Karnataka
(c) Goa
(d) Manipur
Ans. (c)
4. When was Jharkhand inaugurated as a state?
(a) November 1, 2000
(b) November 8, 2000
(c) November 15, 2000
(d) August 15, 2000
Ans. (c)
5. The Governor gets a monthly salary of__________ with other allowances.
(a) Rs30000
(b) Rs 36000
(c) Rs 35000
(d) Rs 38000
Ans. (b)
6. Maize is basically an American crop. The major producers of maize are
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
7. The stock vegetable introduced in India by Portuguese in 15th century was
(a) Potato
(b) Tomato
(c) Carrot
(d) None of the above
Ans. (a)
8. Cotton is the native plant of India . Which of the following is incorrect regarding cotton plant?
(a) Babylonians called cotton by the name as Sindhu
(b) Greeks named cotton as Sindon
(c) India exported cotton fabrics in the olden days to North American countries
(d) None of the above is incorrect
Ans. (c)
9. India is the fourth largest cotton producing country of the world after
(a) Russia , China , USA
(b) USA , China , Russia
(c) China , USA , Russia
(d) USA , Russia , China
Ans. (b)
10. Growing different crops one after the other on the same field during different crop seasons is called .
(a) Mixed farming
(b) Strip cropping
(c) Inter cropping
(d) Multiple cropping
Ans. (d)
11. Which of the following countries have very small agricultural land holding?
(a) France
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) India
Ans. (b)
12. The factors and geographical areas responsible for India to depend on agriculture are
(a) Vast cultivable land
(b) Wide climatic range
(c) Long growing season
(d) All the above
Ans. (d)
13. Millets are called ‘coarse grains’ and constitute mainly of
(a) Maize, Jowar, Pulses
(b) Jowar, Bajra, Ragi
(c) Bajra, Ragi, Maize
(d) Maize, Jowar, Ragi
Ans. (b)
14. Research Institute on dairy development is at
(a) Amritsar
(b) KarnaL
(c) Lucknow
(d) Kanpur
Ans. (b)
15. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(a) The size of land holdings is small in intensive type of cultivation.
(b) Mechanized farming is practiced in shifting agriculture.
(c) Farming is done on a large scale resembling that of the factory production is plantation agriculture.
(d) All the above.
Ans. (b)
16. How much cultivated area has been brought under irrigation?
(a) 20%
(b) 25%
(c) 26%
(d) 28%
Ans. (d)
17. What is the major factor responsible for degradation of environment?
(a) Industrialization
(b) Urbanization
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
18. India ’s main rival in tea export is
(a) Japan
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) China
(d) USA
Ans. (b)
19. 210 Frost free days are needed for the growth of
(a) jute
(b) Mesta
(c) Cotton
(d) None of the above
Ans. (c)
20. Which of the following crops is grown in India by the means dry farming?
(a) Tobacco
(b) Wheat
(c) Cotton
(d) Millets
Ans. (d)
21. Growing different crops in association with each other on the same field at the same time is
(a) Mixed farming
(b) Intercultural
(c) Strip farming
(d) Contour ploughing
Ans. (b)
22. India tops in the world in _____ production.
(a) Vegetables
(b) Fish
(c) Fruits
(d) Flowers
Ans. (c)
23. Fish, poultry, meat, hides and skins, raw wool, silk and milk are classified as
(a) Wild life resources
(b) Animal resources
(c) Primary resources
(d) None of the above
Ans. (b)
24. India has five major ship building centers located at Mumbai, Kolkata, Kochi , and Vishakhapatnam . Which is the fifth ship yard?
(a) Chennai
(b) Mangalore
(c) Marmagao
(d) Kandla
Ans. (c)
25. Which of the following fertilizer plant is in Bihar?
(a) Mathura in U.P.
(b) Sindri fertilizer plant
(c) Kota fertilizer plant
(d) Gorakhpur fertilizer plant
Ans. (b)
Monday, January 30, 2012
ONGC Solved Geology Practice Test
ONGC Solved Geology Practice Test
Geology MCQ Paper
Q.1: Ankerites are:
(a) Ca Mg carbonate
(b) Ca Fe carbonate
(c) Ca Mg Fe carbonate
(d) Ca Mg Fe Al carbonate
ANSWER. (c)
Q.2: Micrite is formed of grains:
(a) Less than two microns in size.
(b) Less than four microns in size.
(c) Less than ten microns in size.
(d) Less than fifty microns in size.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.3: Guano are:
(a) Calcareous deposits.
(b) Ferrugenous deposits.
(c) Phospatic deposits.
(d) Siliceous deposits.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.4: When a lacustrine environment is affected by marine conditions, then the environment
is known as:
(a) Esturine
(b) Paludal
(c) Paralic
(d) Limnic
ANSWER. (c)
Q.5: Which is the most Important Indicator of ancient climate:
(a) Radioactivity of the deposits.
(b) Type of cementing material.
(c) Order of superposition of beds.
(d) Type and distribution of fossils.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.6: “Shingle” is characteristic of ....... environment:
(a) Littoral.
(b) Terrestrial.
(c) Neritic.
(d) Abyssal.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.7: Where the modern turbidity current deposits (turbidlties) are generally found:
(a) At the base of continental shelf.
(b) On and at the base of continental shelf.
(c) On the continental rise.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.8: Sediments which are formed by slow precipitation of minerals from sea water in place
by crystallisation, are called as:
(a) Terrigenous marine sediments.
(b) Pelagic marine sediments.
(c) Authigenic marine sediments.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.9: Fracturing of quartz grains is commonly developed in:
(a) A high energy conditional transport system.
(b) A low energy conditional transport system.
(c) A linear flow conditional transport system.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.10: Mark the correct statement regarding sedimentary facies:
(a) These are lateral variations in sediments type in a sedimentary formation.
(b) They are the result of variations in current velocity.
(c)They are variable in the basin of deposition.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.11: Diagenesis is a:
(a) Pre-depositional process.
(b) Post-depositional process.
(c) Inter-depositional process.
(d) Simultaneous-depositional process.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.12: Among quartzose sandstones the initial stage of diagenesis is characterised by:
(a) Rounding of quartz.
(b) Rounding and solution pitting of quartz.
(c) Colour changes.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.13: According to Dopples, which of the following stage of diagenesis is responsible for the
colour of the rock:
(a) Automorphic.
(b) Synomorphic.
(c) Locomorphic.
(d) Redoxomorphic.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.14: Metamorphism is a:
(a) Solid - State reconstitution
(b) Solid -liquid state reconstitution
(c) Solid -liquid - gas - stare reconstitution.
(d) Liquid - state reconstitution.
Answer. (a)
Q.15: Isotropic fabrics of metamorphic rocks form:
(a) Under nonhydrostatic stress condition.
(b) Under hydrostatic stress condition.
(c) Due to ductile flow
(d) Due to chemical reactions.
Answer. (b)
Q.16: Mark the correct statement:
(a) P-T values often are above the peak metamorphic conditions.
(b) P-T values often are below the peak metamorphic condition.
(c) P-T values often are equal the peak metamorphic condition.
(d) There is no relation between P-T values and peak metamorphic conditions.
Answer. (b)
Q.17: Granulite facies rocks represent:
(a) Shallow crystal materials
(b) Deep crystal materials.
(c) Oceanic materials
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q18: Green schists are:
(a) Low pressure and low temperature rock.
(b) High pressure and high temperature rock.
(c) High pressure and low temperature rock.
(d) Low pressure and high temperature rock.
Answer. (c)
Q.19: Staurolite forms by the reaction of:
(a) Chlorite and sillimanite
(b) Muscovite and chloritoid
(c) Chlorite and mucosvite
(d) Chloritoid and sillimanite.
Answer. (c)
Q.20: A metamorphic rock, containing very high
indicate that the rock was originally a:
(a) Granite
(b) Syenite
(c) Sandstone
(d) Shale
Answer. (c)
Q.21: ln the lowest grades metamorphism, which variety of garnet is present:
(a) Spessartite
(b) Pyrope
(c) Andradite
(d) Grossularite.
Answer. (a)
Q.22: The products of thermal and high grade regional metamorphism, generally containing:
(a) Two - coordinated aluminum
(b) Four - coordinated aluminum.
(c) Six - coordinated aluminum
(d) Eight- coordinated aluminum
Answer. (b)
Q.23: Mineralogical rearrangement of high temperature assemblage to a low temperature
one takes place then the metamorphism is known as:
(a) Puro metamorphism
(b) Contact metamorphism
(c) Retrograde metamorphism
(d) Plutonic metamorphism
Answer. (c)
Q.24: Metamorphism involves process of:
(a) Liquid - state recrystallisation.
(b) Solid -liquid - state recrystallisation
(c) Solid-state recrystallisation
(d) Solid - gas - state recrystallisation.
Answer. (c)
Q.25: The predominant agent in contact metamorphism is:
(a) Temperature
(b) Pressure
(c) Chemical fluid
(d) None of these.
Answer. (a)
Geology Practice IOCL Questions
Geology Practice IOCL Questions
Model Test Paper PETROLOGY
Q.1: Chalk is a variety of:
(a) Biosparite.
(b) Sparite.
(c) Biomicrite.
(d) Stromatolite.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.2: Guano deposits are formed by accumulation of:
(a) The excreta of fish-eating birds.
(b) The aragonite shells.
(c) The calcareous shells.
(d) The bones of sea- birds.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.3: Lagoonal deposits are deposited under:
(a) Euxinic environment
(b) Esturiane environment .
(c) Littoral environment.
(d) Lacustrine environment.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.4: The authigenic apatite in the sandstone-type uranium mineralisation, points towards:
(a) Diagnosis in littoral-marine environment.
(b) Diagenesis in euxenic conditions of marine affinity.
(c) Location of source rock.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.5: The upper cretaceous Mahadek formation at Domiasiat, Meghalaya is well known for:
(a) Calcareous type thorium mineralisation
(b) Calcareous type uranium mineralisation.
(c) Sandstone type uranium mineralization.
(d) Agarillaceous gold deposits.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.6: Deposition of sediments in presence of large volume of water is found in:
(a) Arkosic facies.
(b) Mollasse facies.
(c). Euninic facies.
(d) Flysch facies.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.7: When depositional environments migrate laterally, sediments of one environment
come to lie on top of sediments of an adjacent environment, is:
(a) EuIer’s Law. .
(b) WaIther’s Law.
(c) Jame’s Law.
(d) Franklin’s Law.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.8: Terragenous marine sediments are:
(a) Result of marine activity.
(b) Land derived sediments.
(c) Precipitated sediments.
(d) Both (a) and (b).
ANSWER. (b)
Q.9: Any thick succession of sandstone calcarenite of conglomerate alternatic with shale of
sandstone and deposited mainly by turbidity currents in a deep water environment within a
tectonically active orogenic belt is commonly named as:
(a) Crevice.
(b) Flysch.
(c) Xenolith.
(d) Tecto- sedimentary rock.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.10: The poor sorting of a sediment is generally the result of:
(a) Rapid deposition and more reworking.
(b) Rapid deposition and little reworking.
(c) Slow deposition and little reworking.
(d) Slow deposition and more reworking.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.11: The presence of a limestone indicate about the nature of the area in which it was
formed that:
(a) There were not much land-derived sand, silt and clay.
(b) The carbonate would have been over whelmed and could not form a bed of pure calcium carbonate.
(c) The limestone beds would have formed far from land.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.12: Diagenesis process involves the alternation of:
(a) Structure only.
(b) Structure and texture only
(c) Structure, texture and mineralogy.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.13: The diagenesis of carbonates involves changes in:
(a) Particle size.
(b) Porosity.
(c) Authigenic mineral growth.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.14: Cross-beds are very important sedimentary structures because they provide
information about:
(a) The environment of deposition.
(b) The palaeocurrents.
(c) Identification of top and bottom of a bed.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.15: Heavy minerals are those minerals whose density is above:
(a) 2.2.
(b) 2.6.
(C) 2.9.
(d) 3.5.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.16: Study of heavy minerals is more important in the case of:
(a) Igneous plutonic rocks.
(b) Igneous volcanic rocks.
(c) Sedimentary rocks.
(d) Metamorphic rocks.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.17: Sediments deposited in deltas, may be kept under the category of:
(a) Terrestrial.
(b) Marine.
(C) Terrestrial-marine.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.18: What kind of igneous rock is a likely source for arkoses sandstone?
(a) Granite.
(b) Syenite.
(c) Gabbros.
(d) Diorite.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.19: Sandstone composed of 25% or more of the sand grains of' feldspar is called as:
(a) Quartz-sandstone.
(b) Arkoses-sandstone.
(c) Lithe- sandstone.
(d)Greywacke.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.20: Radiolarian and Diatomaceous Oozes are:
(a) Phosphate deposits.
(b) Siliceous deposits.
(c) Calcareous deposits.
(d) Carbonaceous deposits.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.21: Tipam sandstone is mainly:
(a) Lithiwacke.
(b) Quartzwacke.
(c) Feldspathicwacke.
(d) Lithicarenite with some quanzwacke.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.22: Quartz is the most abundant constituent of sand and sandstone, because:
(a) It is a fairly abundant primary mineral.
(b) It is devoid of any cleavage.
(c) It is highly resistant to decomposition.
(d) All the above are correct.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.23: Sandstones consisting of 60% quartz and 30-34% feldspars are called:
(a) Arkoses.
(b) Greywacke.
(c) Grit.
(d) Free stone
ANSWER. (a)
Q.24: What does a conglomerate indicate about the energy conditions
in the environment of deposition?
(a) Low energy.
(b) Medium energy.
(c) High energy.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.25: Which term is used for flexible sandstone:
(a) lgnimbrite.
(b) Itacolumite.
(c) Ferricrete.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (b)
Free online PETROLOGY Quiz
Free online PETROLOGY Quiz
Geology Solved Test
Q.1: The sedimentary rock without stratification is:
(a) Shale.
(b) Limestone.
(C) Sandstone.
(d) Tillie.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.2: Load cast structures in sedimentary rocks can be regarded as:
(a) Exogenesis.
(b) lndogenetic.
(c) Biogenic.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.3: Antidotes are formed:
(a) At the lowest velocities of the current flow.
(b) At the highest velocities of the current flow.
(c) At the moderate velocities of the current flow.
(d) When there is no flow.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.4: Aeolian and alluvial ripple marks can be distinguished by the following characteristics
(a) At the crest of aeolian ripples, coarse particles are found, while at the crest of alluvial ripples fine
Particles are formed
(b) At the crest of aeolian ripples, fine particles are found, while at the crest of alluvial ripples,
Coarse particles are found
(c) In both the case crests are made up of fine particles; while the troughs are made up of different
Particle sizes.
(d) In both the case crests are made up of coarse particles, while the troughs are made up of
different particle sizes.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.5: Climbing ripples are characteristics of:
(a) Point bar.
(b) Braided bar.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.6: The thickest cross beddings are most often found in:
(a) Alluvial deposits.
(b) Aeolian deposits.
(c) Glacial deposits.
(d) Lake deposits.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.7: Ripple marks are best observed in:
(a) Limestones.
(b) Shams.
(c) Conglomerated.
(d) Sandstones.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.8: Current beddings are formed due to:
(a) Frequent changes in velocity of the flow of the stream.
(b) Frequent change in direction 'of the flow of the stream.
(c) Frequent changes in velocity and direction of the flow of the stream.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.9: Graded bedding is characterised by:
(a) Coarse grains at bottom and fine grains at top
(b) Coarse grain at top and fine grains at bottom.
(c) Same grain size distribution.
(d) Mixture of coarse and fine grains.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.10: The larger the scale of the cross beds indicate:
(a) The higher the velocity of the current.
(b) The lower the velocity of the current.
(c) The distance of the source rock.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.11: Variation of palaeocurrent direction is minimum ln the deposits formed by:
(a) Glacial processes.
(b) Fluvial processes.
(c) Aeolian processes.
(d) Beach processes.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.12: A thickness map which shoes drilled intervals, irrespective of the amount of dip, is
called:
(a) ISOpach map.
(b) ISOchore map.
(c) lSObar map.
(d) lSOlith map.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.13: Grain size distribution of particles can be graphically represented by:
(a) Histogram.
(b) Cumulative curve.
(c) Triangular diagram.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.14: The liquid, used to separate heavy minerals from light minerals is:
(a) Chloroform.
(b) Broomcorn.
(C) Kerosene.
(d) Ethylene.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.15: Presence of augite minerals in a sedimentary rock will indicate:
(a) High grade metamorphic source.
(b) Low grade metamorphic source.
(c) Sandstone rock source.
(d) Igneous volcanic source.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.16: Differentiation between conglomerate and breccias is generally, made based on the
(a) Mineral composition.
(b) Sediments size.
(c) Sediments shape.
(d) Cementing materials.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.17: Quartz sandstone is said "mature" when it is having:
(a) Well-rounded, poor-sorted quartz grains.
(b) Poor-rounded, poor-sorted quartz grains.
(c) Well-rounded, well-sorted quartz grains.
(d) Poor-rounded, well-sorted quartz grains.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.18: ll a body of seawater is totally evaporated, what sequence of rock types result
(a) Calcite, Gypsum, Anhydrite and Halite.
(b) Gypsum, Calcite, Halite and Anhydrite.
(c) Halite, Gypsum, Anhydrite and Calcite.
(d) Gypsum, "Anhydrite, Halite and Calcite.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.19: Chalk is composed of carbonate mud and microfossils. It lt contains clay minerals as
well it, is called :
(a) Chert.
(b) Clayey chalk.
(c) Ooze.
(d) Marl.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.20: The high detritus, quartz percentage in a sand stone indicates:
(a) A recycled origin from a deeply weathered quartz-rich terrain.
(b) Highly resistive nature of the quartz grain.
(c) Long distance of transportation.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (a)
Q.21: Sandstone of glacial origin contains a good percentage of feldspar grains, because:
(a) It is abundant glacial regions.
(b) Its hardness increases in cold regions.
(c) The prevailing intense cold climate prevents feldspar’s decay
(d) None of these.
ANSWER. (c)
Q.22: Greywacke is dark in colour andirlch in clay rock fragments and contains less of
Quartz sand grains, which are:
(a) Rounded, fine and well sorted.
(b) Angular, fine and well sorted.
(c) Rounded, coarse and unsorted
(d) Angular, coarse and unsorted.
ANSWER. (d)
Q.23: Who is the given credit for the principle of uniformitarianism (the present is the key to
past):
(a) Alfred Wegener.
(b) Sir James Hutton.
(c) F. Jenkins.
(d) Arthur Holmes.
ANSWER. (b)
Q.24: Aragonite is unstable under normal temperature pressure conditions, which ions help
preserve aragonite much longer than normal:
(a) Calcite ions
(b) Sulphate ions
(c) Ferric ions.
(d) None of these
ANSWER. (b)
Q.25: ln phosphatic minerals, the main phosphate is usually called:
(a) Collophanite.
(b) Ankerite
(c) Dolomite.
(d) Sparite.
ANSWER. (a)
Geology, Earth Science Sample Paper
Geology, Earth Science Sample Paper
Petrology Practice Test
Q.1: The Formation of pillow lava indicates:
(a) Free eruption.
(b) Continental eruption.
(c) Sub-marine eruption.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)
Q.2: Alteration of volcanic rocks come about more or less automatically, the
alteration is called:
(a) Propylitic alteration.
(b) Hydrothermal alteration.
(c) Deuteric alteration.
(d) None of the above.
Answer. (c)
Q.3: Match the columns:
I II
1. Panidiomorphic. i. Crystals subhedral. _
2. Hypidiomorphic. ii. Crystals are anhedral.
3. Allotriomorphic. iii. Crystals are euhedral.
4. Glassy iv. No crystallisation at all.
(a) 1-ii, 2-iii, 3-i, 4-iv.
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(c) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
(d) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4- iv.
Answer. (d)
Q.4: Trondhjemite is a:
(a) Quartz diorite.
(b) Quartz dumite.
(c) Plagioclase granite.
(d) Felspar diorite.
Answer. (a)
Q.5: Most of the mountain ranges of past geological times, show cores of:
(a) Granitic types.
(b) Granodioritic types.
(c) Dioritic types.
(d) Basaltic types.
Answer. (b)
Q.6: Rock containing enstatite and hypersthene along with plagioclases is called:
(a) Anorthosite.
(b) Monzonite.
(c) Norite
(d) Lamprophyre.
Answer. (c)
Q.7: Match the following:
I ll
1. Granite. i Dacite.
2. Granodiorite. ii. Andesite.
3. Syenite. iii. Rhyolite.
4. Diorite iv. Trachyte.
(a) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-ii.
(b) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
(c) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv.
(d) 1-iv, 2-i, 3-ii, 4- ii.
Answer. (a)
Q.8: Syenite with alkali feldspar and plagioclase in almost equal amount is called:
(a) Norite.
(b) Kimberlite.
(c) Peridotite.
(d) Monozonite.
Answer. (d)
Q.9: What coarse-grained (plutonic) rock consists of abundant calcic plagioclase
pyroxene and ollvine:
(a) Syenit.
(b) Lamprophyre
(c) Peridotite.
(d) Gabbro.
Answer. (d)
Q.10: Kimberlite is a variety of:
(a) Dumile.
b) Pyroxerlite.
c) Peridotite
d) Syenite.
Answer. (c)
Q. 11: Ultrabasic basalt rich in olivine is called
(a) Oceanite.
(b) Klmberlite.
(c) Norite
(d) ljolite.
Answer. (a)
Q.12: Ultrabasic and eclogite xenoliths from mantle sources are found in:
(a) Panna Kimberlites.
(b) Wajrakaru Kimberlites.
(c) Kishangarh Nepheline Syenites.
(d) Dongargarh Granites.
Answer. (b)
Q.13: Mark the correct order of stages of cooling and crystallisation of a magma:
(a) Orthomagmatic, Pneumatolylic, Hydrothermal and pegmatitic
(b) Pegmatitic, Pneumatolytic, Orthomagmatic and Hydrothermal.
(c) Orthomagmatic, Pegmatitic, Pneumatolytic and Hydrothermal.
(d) Hydrothermal, Pegmatitic, Orthomagmatic and Pneumatolytic.
Answer. (c)
Q.14: When the active solutions are directly of magmatic origin, all changes in mineral
composition or in texture produced by them are termed:
(a) Eutectic.
(b) Deuteric.
(c) Metasomatic.
(d) Hydatogenetic.
Answer. (b)
Q.15: The Three most abundant types of sedimentary rocks in order
of decrease abundance are:
(a) Sandstone, Limestone and mud stone.
(b) Sandstone, mudstone and Limestone.
(c) Limestone, sandstone and mudstone.
(d) Mudstone, sandstone and limestone.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.16: Absence of bedding in a sedimentary deposit may be due to:
(a) The rate of accumulation m have been too rapid for sorting.
(b) The materials supplied may have been too uniform in character.
(c) Slumping of the materials after their deposition may have destroyed
on original bedded structures.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.17: A sedimentary layer whose 'thickness Is less than one centimeter, is known as:
(a) Stratum.
(b) Lamina.
(c) Verve.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.18: Plane beds formed under high current Velocity conditions have:
(a) No surface irregularities large in amplitude.
(b) Surface irregularities large in amplitude.
(c) Surface irregularities small in amplitude.
(d) Very narrow irregularities.
ANSWER: (a)
Q.19 Antidotes are formed due to:
(a) Downstream motion of the sediments against the current flow.
(b) Upstream motion of the sediments against the current flow.
(c) Very high velocity of the current flow.
(d) None of these.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.20: In the climbing ripple lamination the angle of climb is commonly between:
(a) 1 and 5 degree from the horizontal.
(b) 5 and 10 degrees from the horizontal.
(C) 5 and 20 degrees from the horizontal.
(d) 10 and 30 degrees from the horizontal.
ANSWER: (c)
Q.21: The formation of ripples on sand and silt surfaces alternates with stacker water
deposition of finer mud, a structure is produced known as:
(a) Tabular bedding.
(b) Ventricular bedding.
(c) False bedding.
(d) Falser bedding.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.22: Ripple marks are developed under:
(a) Deep water conditions.
(b) Shallow water conditions.
(c) Both deep and shallow water conditions.
(d) Very deep water conditions.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.23: Asymmetrical current ripple marks are formed due to:
(a) Wave action.
(b) Current action.
(C) Both wave and current actions.
(d) Combined action of wave and current action.
ANSWER: (b)
Q.24: A current bedding in which horizontal beds are made up of fine materials occuring
alternately with coarse deposits, is called:
(a) Tabular bedding.
(b) Lenticular bedding.
(c) False bedding.
(d) Torrential bedding.
ANSWER: (d)
Q.25: Rain prints can occur in:
(a) Igneous rocks only.
(b) Sedimentary rocks only.
(c) Metamorphic rocks only.
(d) All the above.
ANSWER: (b)
PETROLOGY Geology ONGC MCQ
PETROLOGY Geology ONGC MCQ
Geology Model Test Paper
Q.1: Batholiths are generally associated with:
(a) Island arcs.
(b) Folded structures.
(C) Orogenic belts.
(d). Earthquake zones.
Answer. (c)
Q.2: The process of conversion of glassy material to crystallised material is known as:
(a) Crystallisation.
(b) Devitrification.
(c) Eutectic process.
(d) Assimilation.
Answer. (b)
Q.3: A rock made up of euhedral crystals, the texture is described as:
(a) Allotriomorphic.
(b)Hypidiomorphic.
(c) Panidomorphic.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)
Q.4: Ophitic texture is commonly shown by:
(a) Trachyte.
(b) Lamprophyres.
(C) Andesite.
(d) Dolerite.
Answer. (d)
Q.5: The Deccan trap basalt, as it is porphyric in nature, the phenocrysts are:
a) Plagioclase.
b) Plagioclase and olivine.
c) Plagioclase, olivine and clinopyroxene.
d) Olivine and clinopyroxene.
Answer. (c)
Q.6: Calc-alkaline plutonic rocks are chiefly composed of:
(a) Felspars and pyroxenes.
(b) Felspars and micas.
(c) Quartz and pyroxenes.
(d) Felspar and Quartz.
Answer. (d)
Q.7: When the groundmass is glassy in a porphyritic texture, it is called:
(a) Poikilitic texture.
(b) Orthophyric texture.
(c) Vitrophyric texture.
(d) Felsophyric texture.
Answer. (c)
Q.8: Jungel metavolcanic suite (central India) predominantly known for:
(a) Acidic basalt.
(b) Alkali basalt.
(c) Platean basalt.
(d) Tholiitic basalt
Answer. (b)
Q.9: Which one is a pure natural glass of granitic composition:
(a) Rhyolite.
(b) Pitchstone.
(c) Obsidian.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (c)
Q.10: A common decomposition in basaltic rocks involve:
(a) Oxidation of Mg.
(b) Oxidation of Fe.
(c) Hydration of Fe.
(d) Hydration of K.
Answer. (b)
Q.11: Aplite is a:
a) Fine-grained, unequigranular rock.
b) Fine-grained, equigranular, paniodiomorphic form of a plutonic rocks.
c) Fine-grained, equigranular, allotriomorphic form of a plutonic rock.
d) Volcanic rock.
Answer. (c)
Q.12: Plutonic lgneous rocks are formed under:
(a) Deep seated and moderate temp-pressure conditions.
(b) Near the earth’s surface and high temperature pressure conditions.
(c) Deep seated high temperature pressure and fast cooling conditions.
(d) Deep seated, high temperature pressure and slow cooling conditions.
Answer. (d)
Q.13: Anorthosite dominantly composed of:
(a) Oligoclase felspar.
(b) Anorthoclase felspar.
(C) Labrodorite felspar.
(d) Orthoclase felspar.
Answer. (c)
Q.14: Lamprophyres generally occur as:
(a) Batholiths.
(b) Dykes and sills.
(c) Plutons.
(d) Laccolith.
Answer. (b)
Q.15: Match the following:
I II
1. A coarse-grained, light-coloured rock. i. Rhyolite
2. A coarse-grained, dark-coloured rock. ii. Gabbro.
3. A fine-grained, light-coloured rock. iii. Granite
4. A fine-granied, dark-coloured rock. iv. Basalt.
(a) 1-iv, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-i.
(b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-i, 4-iv.
(c) 1-ii, 2-i, 3-iv, 4-iii.
(d) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 3-i.
Answer. (b)
Q.16: Name the coarse-grained (plutonic) rock consisting primarilly of sodic plagioclase and
hornblende:
(a) Syenite.
(b) Diorite.
(c) Gabbro.
(d) Granite.
Answer. (b)
Q.17: Ultrabasic basalt rich ln augite is called:
a) Oceanite.
b) Diabase.
c) Kimberlite.
d) Ankaramite.
Answer. (d)
Q.18: A rock composed of about 50% nephaline and rest consisting of other matic minerals
is generally known as:
(a) Dunite.
(b) Kimberlite
(c) Iiolite.
(d) Pulaskite.
Answer. (c)
Q.19: The first minerals to crystallise from a completely or almost anhydrous melt at high
temperature are called:
(a) Hydatogenetic minerals.
(b) Pyrogenetic minerals.
(c) Pegmatitic minerals.
(d) Orthomagmatic minerals.
Answer. (b)
Q.20 Present of water in the melt causes:
(a) Lowering of the solidus and liquidus temperatures.
(b) Rising of the solidus and liquidus temperatures.
(c) No change of the solidus and liquidus temperature.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (a)
Q.21: What is the evidence of devitrification:
(a) Corona structure.
(b) Orbicular structure.
(c) Perlitic.
(d) Percussion figure.
Answer. (c)
Q.22: Sagenitic texture is shown by:
(a) Rutile.
(b) llmemite.
(C) Ijolite.
(d) Microcline.
Answer. (a)
Q.23: Match the following:
I ll
1. Leucocratic. i. Dark coloured rock.
2. Mesocractic. ii. Light coloured rock.
3. Melanocratic. iii. Extremely dark coloured rock.
4. Hypermolanocratic. iv. Intermediate in colour.
a) 1-ii, 2-iv, 3-i, 4- iii.
b) 1-iii, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-i.
c) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iii, 4-iv.
d) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-ii, 4-i.
Answer. (a)
Q.24: The larger crystals in the core of zoned pegmatites are the result of the .... of the magma:
(a) Higher viscosity.
(b) Lower viscosity.
(c) More ion concentration.
(d) None of these.
Answer. (b)
Q.25: The grain-size variation is more or less continuous from smallest to largest, the
texture is called:
(a) Seriate.
(b) Porphyritic.
(C) Poikilitic.
(d) Miarolitic.
Answer. (a)
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